ATI RN
Monitoring Baby During Labour Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 34-week pregnant woman presents with a non-reactive nonstress test (NST). What should the nurse do next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perform a biophysical profile (BPP). A non-reactive NST indicates fetal distress, so a BPP is necessary to assess the overall well-being of the fetus. BPP evaluates fetal breathing movements, fetal movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume, and NST results. Administering a tocolytic agent (A) is not indicated as the issue is fetal distress, not preterm labor. Monitoring the fetal heart rate for 30 minutes (C) may delay necessary intervention if fetal distress is present. Monitoring fetal heart rate (D) alone does not provide a comprehensive assessment of fetal well-being.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is providing education to a patient who has given birth to her first child and is being discharged home. The patient expressed concern regarding infant mortality and sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). The patient had an uncomplicated pregnancy, labor, and vaginal delivery. She has a body mass index of 25 and has no other health conditions. The infant is healthy and was delivered full-term. What will be most helpful thing to explain to the patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: The Safe to Sleep campaign. The campaign educates parents on safe sleep practices to reduce the risk of SIDS. In this scenario, the patient's concerns regarding infant mortality and SIDS can be addressed by providing information on safe sleep practices. Choices A and B are not relevant to the patient's concerns as they pertain to advanced medical therapies. Choice C, Baby-Friendly Hospital Initiative, focuses on promoting breastfeeding support and practices, which is not directly related to addressing the patient's concerns about infant mortality and SIDS.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is taking a history of a mother who admits to cocaine drug use. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to educate the patient of the risks associated with cocaine use during pregnancy (Choice C). This is important because it helps the mother understand the potential harm that cocaine can cause to both her and her baby. By providing education, the nurse can empower the mother to make informed decisions for the health and well-being of herself and her baby. Referring the patient to a drug abuse program (Choice A) may be necessary but not the immediate first step. Screening the infant for side effects (Choice B) should be done later after educating the mother. Advising the patient that her baby will be okay (Choice D) is not appropriate as it downplays the seriousness of cocaine use during pregnancy.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a 35-year-old woman who is pregnant and has a history of hypertension. Which intervention would be most important to prevent preeclampsia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the patient's weight gain and blood pressure. Monitoring weight gain and blood pressure is crucial to detect early signs of preeclampsia in pregnant women with a history of hypertension. Weight gain can indicate fluid retention, a common symptom of preeclampsia, while high blood pressure is a key indicator of the condition. By closely monitoring these parameters, the nurse can promptly identify and manage preeclampsia to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby. Incorrect choices: A: Encouraging regular physical activity and a healthy diet is important for overall health but may not directly prevent preeclampsia. C: Prescribing antihypertensive medications immediately may be necessary if blood pressure is severely elevated, but it is not the most important intervention for preventing preeclampsia. D: Avoiding prenatal visits to prevent stress is not a valid approach as regular prenatal care is essential for monitoring the pregnancy and managing any complications that may
Question 5 of 5
A pregnant woman who is 36 weeks gestation reports sudden swelling in her hands and feet, along with a headache. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Assessing the patient's blood pressure and urine for protein is the priority because sudden swelling in hands and feet, along with a headache, could indicate preeclampsia, a serious condition in pregnancy. High blood pressure and protein in the urine are key indicators of preeclampsia. This assessment will help determine if the patient needs immediate medical intervention. Choice A is incorrect because simply resting and elevating the feet may not address the underlying issue of preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect as encouraging the patient to drink fluids will not address the potential serious condition. Choice D is incorrect because while lying on the left side can improve circulation, it does not address the urgent need to assess for preeclampsia.