ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 33-year-old man with a history of chronic epididymoorchitis is treated with long-term tetracycline antibiotic therapy. During the 3 months of therapy, he develops discoloration of his teeth. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tetracycline causes tooth discoloration by binding to calcium in developing teeth . Drug toxicity is vague. Folate synthesis , hepatic enzymes , and osteoclasts (E) aren't involved. This chelation stains enamel, a known effect with prolonged use.
Question 2 of 5
A 57-year-old patient, living at home, has severe pain due to a metastatic carcinoma that is being managed with fentanyl, delivered transdermally from a patch. He should also be taking, or at least have on hand
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fentanyl, a potent opioid, effectively manages severe cancer pain via transdermal delivery, but constipation is a universal side effect due to mu receptor activation in the gut, reducing motility. Docusate, a stool softener, prevents and treats this by easing bowel movements, essential for patient comfort and compliance. Apomorphine, a dopamine agonist, treats Parkinson's off-periods, irrelevant here. Loperamide, an antidiarrheal, worsens constipation. Morphine duplicates fentanyl's action, unnecessary with a patch. Naloxone reverses overdose, useful in emergencies but not routine. Given fentanyl's chronic use, proactively managing constipation with docusate is critical, as it mitigates a predictable, distressing side effect without altering pain control.
Question 3 of 5
The patient asks the nurse why she needs to continue using table salt because her prescribed lithium (Eskalith) is a salt. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lithium, used for bipolar disorder, is a salt processed by the kidneys, which also regulate sodium. Low sodium levels (e.g., from reduced table salt intake) cause the kidneys to conserve lithium instead, increasing serum levels and risking toxicity—symptoms like tremors, confusion, or seizures. Choice B correctly explains this mechanism: adequate sodium intake (via table salt) prevents lithium retention, maintaining therapeutic levels. Choice A confuses the issue with sea salt, which isn't clinically distinct here. Choice C inaccurately suggests adjusting salt reactively, risking toxicity first. Choice D downplays salt's role compared to hydration, which, while important, doesn't negate sodium's necessity. The nurse must clarify that consistent sodium intake is essential for lithium's safe metabolism, making choice B the most accurate and educational response.
Question 4 of 5
The patient has been receiving amitriptyline (Elavil) for 2 weeks. He tells the nurse he doesn't think this medicine is working, as he is still depressed. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amitriptyline requires 2-6 weeks for full antidepressant effect, increasing neurotransmitters gradually. After 2 weeks, persistent depression is expected, so 'It can take several weeks' educates on the timeline, encouraging adherence. Choice B dismisses feelings, risking trust. Choice C assumes failure prematurely. Choice D exaggerates to months, discouraging patience. A provides accurate, supportive guidance, aligning with tricyclic pharmacology, making it the best response.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer heparin to a client. Which laboratory value should the nurse check prior to administration?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heparin, an anticoagulant, prolongs clotting via antithrombin, monitored by aPTT to ensure therapeutic range (1.5-2.5 times normal) and prevent bleeding or clotting risks. PT/INR (choices A, C) track warfarin, not heparin. Platelet count matters for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but isn't the primary pre-dose check'baseline and periodic counts suffice. aPTT directly reflects heparin's effect, guiding dosing adjustments, especially in acute settings like DVT or PE. Checking it ensures safety, as excessive anticoagulation causes hemorrhage, while under-dosing fails therapy. This aligns with heparin's rapid action and short half-life, making B the critical lab value to verify before administration.