ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 33-year-old man spends the morning outside gardening in the sun on a warm spring day. He develops a tension headache, and the only medication he has at home is aspirin. After taking two regular-sized aspirin tablets, there was an increase in his respiration rate. What is the reason for the increased respirations?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aspirin (salicylates) at standard doses (two tablets) can cause respiratory changes. Option , CO2 receptor agonism, is incorrect-salicylates don't target carotid bodies directly. Option , direct stimulation of the respiratory center, is correct-salicylates stimulate the medullary respiratory center, increasing respiration rate, a known early effect in salicylate toxicity. Option , shifting the oxygen dissociation curve, is unrelated to aspirin's action. Option , uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation, occurs in overdose, causing metabolic acidosis and compensatory hyperventilation, but not at this dose. Here, the mild increase in respiration aligns with central stimulation, not severe metabolic disruption. This reflects aspirin's pharmacological effect on brainstem respiratory control, distinct from overdose scenarios, explaining the observed hyperventilation in this otherwise healthy man.
Question 2 of 5
A 58-year-old woman who is obese comes to the emergency department with diaphoresis and crushing chest pain that radiates to her left arm. The physician orders an ECG and checks her cardiac enzymes to confirm his suspicion of myocardial infarction. Because of the quick response and intervention, she survives and is ultimately discharged with a prescription for low-dose daily aspirin to inhibit platelet aggregation. Which of the following enzymes is the intended target of aspirin in this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
A patient has been diagnosed has having 'long QT syndrome.' The patient is experiencing significant pain following a bout with shingles. What would be an appropriate drug for his pain?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Long QT syndrome predisposes patients to torsades de pointes, so pain management must avoid QT-prolonging drugs. Amitriptyline, a TCA, extends QT via sodium channel blockade, risking arrhythmias. Fentanyl, an opioid, has minimal QT impact and relieves severe pain but carries respiratory depression risks, less ideal for shingles' neuropathic pain. Acyclovir treats shingles' viral cause, not pain directly. Diazepam addresses anxiety, not pain. Gabapentin, an anticonvulsant, targets neuropathic pain (common in postherpetic neuralgia) by modulating calcium channels, with no significant QT prolongation, making it safe and effective here. Its efficacy in nerve pain, lack of cardiac risk, and suitability for chronic management post-shingles distinguish it as the best option.
Question 4 of 5
The physician has prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) for the patient who is anxious and depressed. The patient calls the nurse to report that he has experienced delayed ejaculation since being on this medication. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sertraline, an SSRI, commonly causes sexual dysfunction, including delayed ejaculation, affecting up to 70% of patients due to increased serotonin levels impacting sexual response. This side effect can significantly affect quality of life, making it a valid concern warranting physician notification , as the doctor might adjust the dose or switch to a drug with fewer sexual side effects, like bupropion. Choice B minimizes the patient's experience, prioritizing depression over well-being, which could reduce compliance. Choice C assumes a drastic outcome (suicide) without evidence, escalating unnecessarily. Choice D inaccurately suggests spontaneous resolution, which is rare without intervention. The nurse's best action is to advocate for the patient by informing the physician, ensuring a tailored treatment plan, making choice A the most patient-centered and proactive response.
Question 5 of 5
Which drug is most likely to be ordered for the client with herpes simplex virus?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Herpes simplex virus requires antiviral therapy, and acyclovir inhibits viral DNA replication, reducing symptom duration and severity, making it the standard treatment. Zidovudine targets HIV, not HSV. Nystatin is antifungal, ineffective against viruses. Metronidazole treats bacterial/protozoal infections. Acyclovir's specificity for HSV, backed by clinical guidelines, ensures targeted therapy, making A the most likely drug ordered for effective management.