A 32-year-old patient undergoing dental examination was found to have some rash-like lesions resembling secondary syphilis in the oral cavity. The patient was referred for the serological study with the purpose of diagnosis confirmation. In order to detect antibodies in the serum, living Treponema were used as diagnosticum. What serological test was performed?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Passive hemagglutination. In this test, red blood cells coated with Treponema antigens agglutinate in the presence of patient's serum antibodies. This indicates the presence of antibodies against Treponema, confirming the diagnosis. A: Immobilization test uses live Treponema to detect specific antibodies, but it is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. C: Precipitation test is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. D: Complement binding test is not specific for syphilis and is used more for autoimmune diseases. Therefore, passive hemagglutination is the most appropriate serological test in this case due to its specificity and relevance to the presentation of the patient.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas. Rationale: 1. Mobile nonspore-forming gram-negative bacteria with a capsule substance indicate Pseudomonas. 2. Pseudomonas grow well on ordinary nutrient media, matching the description. 3. The secretion of a blue-green pigment is a characteristic feature of Pseudomonas. 4. Proteus is a gram-negative bacterium but does not match all the given properties. 5. Clostridium is a gram-positive bacterium that forms spores. 6. Shigella is a gram-negative bacterium but does not have the other characteristics mentioned. Therefore, based on the properties described, the most likely genus of the microorganism is Pseudomonas.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clostridium tetani. Endospores are formed by certain bacteria as a survival mechanism in harsh conditions. Clostridium species, including C. tetani, have the ability to form endospores. Staphylococcus aureus (A), Neisseria gonorrhoeae (C), and Escherichia coli (D) do not produce endospores. Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive cocci bacterium, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a gram-negative diplococci bacterium, and Escherichia coli is a gram-negative rod-shaped bacterium. Therefore, the correct choice is Clostridium tetani as it is known for its ability to form endospores.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Passive hemagglutination. In this test, red blood cells coated with Treponema antigens agglutinate in the presence of patient's serum antibodies. This indicates the presence of antibodies against Treponema, confirming the diagnosis. A: Immobilization test uses live Treponema to detect specific antibodies, but it is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. C: Precipitation test is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. D: Complement binding test is not specific for syphilis and is used more for autoimmune diseases. Therefore, passive hemagglutination is the most appropriate serological test in this case due to its specificity and relevance to the presentation of the patient.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: chemoheterotrophs. Chemoheterotrophs use organic compounds as both their carbon source and energy source. They obtain energy by breaking down organic molecules through cellular respiration. Photoautotrophs (A) use light energy to produce organic compounds, chemoautotrophs (B) use inorganic compounds for energy, and photoheterotrophs (C) use light energy but require organic compounds as a carbon source. Therefore, chemoheterotrophs best describe bacteria that obtain both carbon and energy from organic compounds.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Subcutaneous mycoses are fungal infections that affect the skin, subcutaneous tissues, and bones. The correct answer is A: tropics, as these infections are more commonly found in warm and humid regions. Fungi that cause subcutaneous mycoses thrive in tropical climates due to the favorable conditions for their growth and transmission. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because deserts (B) have dry conditions not conducive to fungal growth, forests of the Northern Hemisphere (C) have varying climates that may not support the specific fungi causing subcutaneous mycoses, and the Rocky Mountains (D) are not typically associated with the high humidity required for these infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. 1. Gram-positive cocci suggest a staphylococcal species. 2. Catalase-positive indicates it belongs to the Staphylococcus genus. 3. Coagulase-negative rules out Staphylococcus aureus. 4. Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common cause of infections in immunocompromised patients. Summary: - B: Staphylococcus aureus is coagulase-positive. - C: Streptococcus pneumoniae is a Gram-positive diplococci. - D: Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococci.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Both Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani produce neurotoxins. Botulinum toxin affects the nervous system by blocking neurotransmitter release, causing paralysis. Tetanus toxin affects the nervous system by interfering with neurotransmitter release, leading to muscle stiffness and spasms. Therefore, Choice C is correct. Choices A and B alone are incorrect because they only mention one of the bacteria that produces a neurotoxin. Choice D is incorrect because both bacteria mentioned in Choices A and B produce neurotoxins.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: prophage. In the repressed stage, a phage integrates its DNA into the host cell's chromosome, becoming a prophage. This integration allows the phage to replicate along with the host cell without causing immediate lysis. A: Antiphage is not a term used to describe a phage in a repressed stage. C: Virulent phage refers to a phage that immediately causes lysis of the host cell. D: Latent phage is not a commonly used term in this context.