ATI RN
Current Issues in Maternal Newborn Nursing Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 32-year-old female patient arrives to the emergency department with heavy uterine bleeding. The nurse finds that the patient had a positive pregnancy test 1 month prior to the visit. What is the potential medical management for this patient's issue?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dilation and curettage. This procedure is indicated for heavy uterine bleeding in the setting of a positive pregnancy test to diagnose and treat conditions such as incomplete miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. Dilation and curettage involves dilating the cervix and scraping the uterine lining to remove any remaining products of conception. It is important in this case to rule out any potential sources of bleeding that could be life-threatening. A: Endometrial biopsy is not the appropriate initial management in this scenario as it is primarily used to assess endometrial pathology such as cancer. C: Colposcopy is a procedure used to examine the cervix and vagina for abnormalities, not typically indicated for heavy uterine bleeding in the setting of a positive pregnancy test. D: Laparoscopy is a minimally invasive surgical procedure used to view the abdominal organs, not typically indicated for uterine bleeding related to a positive pregnancy test.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse at a family practice clinic is providing care to a 47-year-old obese patient. The patient states that she realizes that she has put on extra weight but is reluctant to go to any exercise classes. She states that she often has to cross her legs when she sneezes and cannot do any exercises with her legs crossed. The health care provider has prescribed tolterodine (Detrol). What is the rationale for this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tolterodine is used to improve the tone and tissue in the urethral and vaginal areas. This medication is prescribed to treat overactive bladders and to decrease urinary frequency, urgency, and urge incontinence. The patient's symptoms of having to cross her legs when sneezing and inability to do exercises with legs crossed indicate issues with urinary incontinence. Tolterodine works by relaxing the bladder muscles and improving bladder control, which addresses the patient's symptoms. Incorrect choices: A: Tolterodine is not an appetite suppressant and does not facilitate weight loss. C: Tolterodine does not act as an appetite suppressant, so it does not facilitate weight loss. D: Tolterodine does not improve blood flow to pelvic muscles or decrease urinary tract infections.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is assessing a 25-year-old female patient when the patient becomes tearful. The patient states that she has thin milky discharge from her nipples and two small masses on her left breast. She has lost over 40 pounds in the past year due to intensive exercises and finds that she needs to wear a sports bra during her sessions. The patient states that she is afraid that she will become the first member of her family to have breast cancer. Besides a negative mammogram, what other symptoms would correlate with this being a benign finding? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Milky discharge from nipples. Milky discharge from nipples in a young female with no other concerning symptoms can be indicative of benign conditions such as hormonal imbalances or medication side effects. In this case, the patient's age, weight loss due to exercise, and negative mammogram are all factors that suggest a low likelihood of breast cancer. Extensive weight loss (choice B) is likely attributed to the intensive exercises mentioned and not directly correlated with breast cancer. Painful masses (choice C) could indicate an inflammatory or infection process but are not necessarily indicative of malignancy. Mood swings (choice D) are unrelated to the breast symptomatology described.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a patient who has just been diagnosed with chlamydia and wants to know when she can have sex with her boyfriend again. What is the best response from the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that requires treatment for both the infected person and their partner to prevent reinfection. The recommended practice is to abstain from sex until 7 days after completing treatment to ensure the infection is fully cleared from both individuals. This approach helps to prevent the spread of the infection and reduces the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because simply finishing the medicine without waiting for the partner's treatment can lead to reinfection. Choice C is incorrect as it solely focuses on the partner's treatment without considering the completion of the patient's own treatment. Choice D is incorrect as it disregards the importance of completing treatment and waiting for the specified period before resuming sexual activity.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a patient who was just diagnosed with VVC. What treatment does the nurse expect to teach the patient about?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: clotrimazole (antifungal). VVC stands for vulvovaginal candidiasis, which is a fungal infection. Clotrimazole is an antifungal medication commonly used to treat VVC by inhibiting the growth of the fungus. Metronidazole (choice A) is an anti-protozoal agent used for parasitic infections, not fungal infections. Penicillin G (choice B) and ampicillin (choice D) are both antibiotics used to treat bacterial infections, not fungal infections like VVC. Therefore, the nurse would expect to teach the patient about using clotrimazole to treat VVC.