ATI RN
Medical Microbiology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 32 y.o. man is divorced, has an irregular sexual life. He complains of falling out of hair in the region of eyelashes, eyebrows, scalp. Objectively: diffuse alopecia is observed, eyebrow margin is absent, eyelashes are stair-like (Pinkus' sign). What examination should be carried out first of all?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Wasserman test, IFT. The patient's symptoms of diffuse alopecia and Pinkus' sign are suggestive of secondary syphilis. The Wasserman test and Immunofluorescence Test (IFT) are used to detect antibodies against Treponema pallidum, the bacterium causing syphilis. This would confirm or rule out syphilis as the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms. Choice B (T.pallidum Immobilization Test) is similar to the Wasserman test but less commonly used. Choice C (Detection of the nasal mucous membrane for M.leprae) is irrelevant as leprosy does not present with the described symptoms. Choice D (Consultation of neuropathist) is premature without ruling out syphilis first. Thus, the Wasserman test, IFT should be the initial examination to investigate the likely cause of the patient's symptoms.
Question 2 of 5
A patient has roundish ulcers on his face, inflammation and enlargement of lymph nodes. These symptoms turned up as a result of mosquito bites. Laboratory examination of discharge from the ulcers revealed unicellular aflagellar organisms. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is Dermatotropic leishmaniasis. The roundish ulcers, lymph node enlargement, and presence of unicellular aflagellar organisms in discharge are characteristic of this parasitic infection transmitted by sandfly bites. Leishmania parasites cause skin lesions and lymphadenopathy. Toxoplasmosis (B) presents with flu-like symptoms, not ulcers. Scabies (C) causes intense itching and burrows, not ulcers. Trypanosomiasis (D) presents with fever, not ulcers. In this case, the symptoms align closely with Dermatotropic leishmaniasis, making it the most likely diagnosis.
Question 3 of 5
2 weeks since the blood transfusion a recepient has developed fever. What protozoal disease can it be?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malaria. Fever developing 2 weeks post-blood transfusion is characteristic of malaria due to the incubation period of the parasite. Trypanosomiasis presents earlier, amebiasis usually causes GI symptoms, and toxoplasmosis typically manifests with flu-like symptoms. Malaria is the most likely cause based on the timing and clinical presentation.
Question 4 of 5
Several patients with similar complaints came to the doctor. They all present with weakness, pain in the intestines, indigestion. Feces analysis revealed the need for urgent hospitalization of the patient, who had microbial cysts with four nuclei detected in his samples. Such cysts are characteristic of the following protozoon:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This protozoon is known to cause amoebic dysentery, presenting symptoms of weakness, intestinal pain, and indigestion. The presence of microbial cysts with four nuclei in fecal samples is characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica. These cysts are the infective form of the parasite and can cause severe invasive disease in the intestines. Incorrect choices: B: Entamoeba coli does not typically cause invasive disease or severe symptoms like those described in the question. C: Balantidium is a ciliated protozoan that causes balantidiasis, which presents differently from the symptoms described in the question. D: Trichomonad is a flagellated protozoan that typically infects the urogenital tract, not the intestine, and does not form cysts with four nuclei. In summary, the key clues in the question were the symptoms of weakness, intestinal pain,
Question 5 of 5
A patient of oral surgery department has developed a purulent complication. Bacteriological analysis of the wound discharge allowed to isolate a culture producing a blue-and-green pigment. Which of the listed microorganisms may be a causative agent of the infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known for producing a blue-green pigment called pyocyanin, which is characteristic of its colonies. This bacterium is commonly associated with purulent infections, especially in immunocompromised patients. Proteus vulgaris (B) is not typically associated with blue-green pigment production. Bacillus subtilis (C) is not a common pathogen in wound infections. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) does not produce blue-green pigment and is more commonly associated with respiratory infections. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and pigment production, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most likely causative agent in this case.