ATI RN
Pharmacology Across the Lifespan ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 31-year-old woman presents to the clinic for follow-up of her abdominal pain. The pain has been occurring for a couple of years but has worsened recently. She is often constipated and then will have periods of diarrhea. Her pain does usually improve after a bowel movement. After multiple negative tests, the diagnosis of constipation-predominant irritable bowel syndrome is made. Which of the following is an appropriate treatment for this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 5
An 18-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by a friend after smoking crack cocaine because he was 'acting funny.' His temperature is 38°C (100.4°F), pulse is 110 beats/minute, and he appears agitated. What is the action of cocaine on sympathetic nerves?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
A 42-year-old woman who is a chemist is brought to the emergency department because of a 1-hour history of severe abdominal cramps, nausea and vomiting, hypotension, bradycardia, sweating, and difficulty breathing due to bronchospasm and congestion. Exposure to which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: These symptoms (abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting, hypotension, bradycardia, sweating, bronchospasm) suggest cholinergic toxicity from an organophosphate like isoflurophate (DFP, C), an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor. As a chemist, she could have been exposeAcrylamide causes neurotoxicity, cyanogen bromide cyanide poisoning (tachycardia, not bradycardia), phentolamine alpha-blockade (hypotension without bronchospasm), and propranolol (E) beta-blockade (bradycardia without cholinergic signs)—none match this full picture.
Question 4 of 5
A patient requires a high dose of a new antihypertensive medication because the new medication has a significant first-pass effect. What does this mean?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A significant first-pass effect means the medication is extensively metabolized in the liver after oral administration, reducing its bioavailability. This requires a higher dose to achieve therapeutic levels. Choice misinterprets circulation, refers to renal excretion (not first-pass), and suggests tolerance, which isn’t the same phenomenon.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has an order for metoprolol. Prior to medication administration, what does the nurse need to assess?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, slows heart rate and lowers blood pressure. Assessing heart rate is critical before administration; if <50-60 bpm (depending on protocol), the dose may be held to avoid bradycardiRespirations and O2 saturation are relevant for respiratory drugs, temperature is unrelateNote: Answer key says (b), but is correct per nursing standards.