ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 31-year-old patient has returned to the post-surgical unit following a hysterectomy. The patients care plan addresses the risk of hemorrhage. How should the nurse best monitor the patients postoperative blood loss?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Count and inspect each perineal pad that the patient uses. This method directly measures postoperative blood loss and allows for accurate monitoring. It provides quantitative data to assess the severity of hemorrhage. A: Having the patient void and have bowel movements using a commode rather than toilet does not directly measure blood loss and may not provide accurate monitoring. C: Swabbing the patient's perineum for the presence of blood is not as accurate as directly counting and inspecting perineal pads. D: Leaving the patient's perineum open to air does not provide a method for quantifying blood loss and may not be as reliable as inspecting perineal pads.
Question 2 of 5
A woman is being treated for a tumor of the left breast. If the patient and her physician opt for prophylactic treatment, the nurse should prepare the woman for what intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bilateral mastectomy. This intervention involves removing both breasts to reduce the risk of developing breast cancer in the future. For a woman with a history of breast cancer in one breast, opting for bilateral mastectomy can significantly decrease the likelihood of cancer recurrence. This proactive approach is often recommended for individuals with a high risk of developing breast cancer. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: More aggressive chemotherapy - Chemotherapy is typically used to treat existing cancer cells, not as a prophylactic measure to prevent cancer. B: Left mastectomy - This option only removes the affected breast, not addressing the risk of cancer developing in the other breast. C: Radiation therapy - While radiation therapy can be used as part of the treatment for breast cancer, it is not a prophylactic measure to prevent future cancer development in the contralateral breast.
Question 3 of 5
A patient in her 30s has two young children and has just had a modified radical mastectomy with immediate reconstruction. The patient shares with the nurse that she is somewhat worried about her future, but she appears to be adjusting well to her diagnosis and surgery. What nursing intervention is most appropriate to support this patients coping?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, which is to arrange a referral to a community-based support program. This option is the most appropriate because it offers the patient ongoing support from individuals who understand what she is going through. Community-based support programs can provide a safe space for the patient to share her feelings, connect with others in similar situations, and access additional resources for coping. This intervention focuses on providing the patient with adequate support beyond the immediate recovery period, which is crucial for long-term coping and adjustment. Option A is incorrect as it may not consider the patient's individual needs for support beyond her spouse or partner. Option B may be premature as the patient might need time to process her diagnosis and surgery before moving on to the next phase of treatment. Option C may put undue pressure on the patient to maintain a specific emotional state for the sake of others, which may not be beneficial for her own coping and healing process.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is reviewing the physicians notes from the patient who has just left the clinic. The nurse learns that the physician suspects a malignant breast tumor. On palpation, the mass most likely had what characteristic?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mobility. A malignant breast tumor typically lacks mobility due to its fixed attachment to surrounding tissues. This characteristic is concerning for malignancy as it suggests invasive growth. Incorrect answers: A: Nontenderness - Tenderness does not reliably indicate malignancy or benignancy. B: A size of 5 mm - Tumor size alone does not determine malignancy. C: Softness and a regular shape - Malignant tumors are often firm and irregular in shape.
Question 5 of 5
A 60-year-old man presents at the clinic complaining that his breasts are tender and enlarging. The patient is subsequently diagnosed with gynecomastia. The patient should be assessed for the possibility of what causative factor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medication adverse effects. Gynecomastia in a 60-year-old man is often caused by medications like spironolactone, cimetidine, and certain antipsychotics. To determine the causative factor, a thorough medication history review is crucial. Age-related physiologic changes (choice A) do not typically lead to gynecomastia in men. Poor nutrition (choice C) and fluid overload (choice D) are not common causes of gynecomastia in this context.