A 30-year-old woman is taking an oral contraceptive and is concerned about the potential side effects. What should the nurse include in the patient education?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Oral contraceptives can cause headaches and breast tenderness.' It is essential for the nurse to educate the patient about common side effects of oral contraceptives, such as headaches and breast tenderness. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Weight loss and increased energy levels (Choice A) are not common side effects of oral contraceptives. Similarly, increased appetite and weight gain (Choice B) are not typical side effects. Finally, stating that oral contraceptives have no side effects (Choice D) is inaccurate as they can have various side effects, albeit usually mild and manageable.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing high pain levels, rated at 9 out of 10. Relaxation and distraction techniques are effective nonpharmacologic interventions for managing pain. Teaching the client guided imagery and meditation (Choice A) can also be beneficial; however, in this acute situation of severe pain, relaxation and distraction techniques are more likely to provide immediate relief. Initiating neurostimulation (Choice B) and heat therapy (Choice C) may not be suitable for immediate pain relief in this scenario and are not as commonly used for managing high pain levels in palliative care settings.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. Consistency in timing helps regulate the hormone levels in the body, ensuring the medication's optimal benefit. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to avoid sun exposure with this medication. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting the healthcare provider may not be safe. Choice D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone acetate is typically taken orally and not applied topically once a week.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Poorly managed hypertension primarily affects the heart and kidneys. The heart is at risk of conditions like heart failure due to the increased workload from elevated blood pressure. The kidneys can suffer damage from longstanding hypertension, leading to kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the bladder, urethra, brain, skin, stomach, and intestines are not the primary organs affected by poorly managed hypertension.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Recurrent infections are a hallmark symptom of immunodeficiency. Individuals with impaired immune systems are more susceptible to recurrent infections due to their compromised ability to fight off pathogens. Anemia (Choice A) is not a direct symptom of immunodeficiency but can be a consequence of chronic diseases. Hypersensitivity (Choice C) refers to exaggerated immune responses rather than impaired immune function. Autoantibody production (Choice D) is not typically a primary symptom of immunodeficiency but may be seen in certain autoimmune conditions.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain, redness. Inflammation is characterized by pain and redness as part of the body's response to tissue injury. Choice A, loss of function and coolness, are not primary characteristics of inflammation. Choice C, heat and pallor, may be present in some cases but are not as consistently associated with inflammation as pain and redness. Choice D, swelling and pallor, includes swelling which is common in inflammation but pallor is not a typical characteristic.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rh antigen. In addition to ABO antigens, Rh antigen must also be matched for a blood transfusion. Rh antigen compatibility is crucial to prevent adverse reactions. Choice A, HLA type, is not directly related to blood transfusions but plays a role in organ transplantation. Choice C, Immunoglobulins, are not typically matched for blood transfusions. Choice D, Platelet compatibility, while important in specific cases, is not a standard requirement for all blood transfusions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The 'fight or flight' response is a primal physiological reaction that prepares the body to respond to a perceived threat or danger. This response triggers an increase in heart rate to pump more blood to the muscles and vital organs, preparing the body for action. Choice B, 'Constricted pupils,' is part of the 'fight or flight' response as well, as it helps improve focus and vision. Choice C, 'Decreased blood pressure,' is incorrect because blood pressure typically increases to ensure adequate circulation during the 'fight or flight' response. Choice D, 'Decreased heart rate,' is incorrect as the heart rate increases to supply more oxygen and nutrients to the body during times of stress.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics due to potential drug interactions. It is crucial for patients to be informed about this to consider additional contraceptive methods during antibiotic therapy. Choice A is incorrect because while oral contraceptives are highly effective, they are not 100% foolproof. Choice B is incorrect as it may give the impression that immediate protection is conferred, which is not the case. Choice D is incorrect as taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly impact their effectiveness.