ATI RN
Microbiology Basic and Clinical Principles Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 30-year-old patient complains about having abdominal pain and diarrhea for five days; body temperature rise up to 37, 5oC along with chills. The day before a patient had been in a forest and drunk from an open water reservoir. Laboratory analyses enabled to make the following diagnosis: amebic dysentery. What is the drug of choice for its treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Rationale: 1. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for amebic dysentery due to its effectiveness against the causative agent, Entamoeba histolytica. 2. Metronidazole has good tissue penetration and is able to reach the site of infection in the gut. 3. It is a bactericidal drug that acts by disrupting the DNA structure of the parasite. 4. Metronidazole is well-absorbed orally and has minimal side effects. Summary of other choices: B: Furazolidonum - Not the drug of choice for amebic dysentery. It is primarily used for treating bacterial diarrhea. C: Levomycetin - Not effective against Entamoeba histolytica and not recommended for amebic dysentery. D: Phthalazol - Not commonly used for amebic dysentery treatment. Metronidazole is preferred due
Question 2 of 9
A patient suffers from severe postoperative pseudomonadous infection. What of the following antibiotics should be administered in this case?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amikacin sulfate. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly resistant to many antibiotics, but aminoglycosides like Amikacin have good activity against it. Step 1: Identify the pathogen causing the infection. Step 2: Consider the antibiotic's spectrum of activity against the pathogen. Step 3: Choose an antibiotic with proven efficacy. Amikacin is a good choice due to its effectiveness against Pseudomonas. Choice B, Benzylpenicillin, is a penicillin which is not effective against Pseudomonas. Choice C, Cephazolin, is a cephalosporin with limited activity against Pseudomonas. Choice D, Erythromycin, is a macrolide which is not effective against Pseudomonas.
Question 3 of 9
Streptococcus pneumoniae are:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alpha-hemolytic streptococci. Streptococcus pneumoniae are classified as alpha-hemolytic streptococci based on their ability to partially break down red blood cells, causing a greenish discoloration on blood agar plates. This distinguishes them from beta-hemolytic streptococci, which completely break down red blood cells. Streptococcus pneumoniae are not resistant to bile (choice A), as they are bile soluble. They are not stained by the Ziehl-Neelsen staining method (choice C), which is used for acid-fast bacteria such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis. They are sensitive to optochin (choice D), which is a key differentiating factor in identifying them from other alpha-hemolytic streptococci.
Question 4 of 9
A female patient has symptoms of inflammation of urogenital tracts. A smear from the vaginal mucous membrane contained big unicellular pyriform organisms with a sharp spike on the back end of their bodies; big nucleus and undulating membrane. What protozoa were revealed in the smear?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection characterized by inflammation of urogenital tracts. The description of big unicellular pyriform organisms with a sharp spike on the back end of their bodies, big nucleus, and undulating membrane matches the morphology of Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas hominis and Trichomonas buccalis are different species that do not cause urogenital infections. Trypanosoma gambiense is a protozoan parasite causing African trypanosomiasis and does not match the described morphology or symptoms.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with a sore throat had a throat culture revealing Gram-positive cocci in chains. The bacteria were catalase-negative and beta-hemolytic on blood agar. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Gram-positive cocci in chains suggest Streptococcus species. Step 2: Catalase-negative eliminates Staphylococcus aureus. Step 3: Beta-hemolytic on blood agar matches Streptococcus pyogenes. Step 4: Streptococcus pyogenes is a common cause of sore throat (pharyngitis). Summary: A: Streptococcus pyogenes - Correct due to Gram-positive cocci in chains, catalase-negative, beta-hemolytic, and common cause of sore throat. B: Staphylococcus aureus - Incorrect due to catalase-positive. C: Streptococcus pneumoniae - Incorrect due to alpha-hemolytic. D: Enterococcus faecalis - Incorrect due to not being beta-hemolytic.
Question 6 of 9
A lymph node punctate of a patient with suspected protozoa disease was examined. Examination of the stained specimen (Romanovsky's stain) revealed some crescent bodies with pointed end, blue cytoplasm and red nucleus. What protozoan were revealed in the smears?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malarial plasmodiums. The description of crescent bodies with a pointed end, blue cytoplasm, and red nucleus corresponds to the characteristics of Plasmodium species seen in Romanovsky's stain. Plasmodium species are known to cause malaria and have distinct features like the ones described. Incorrect choices: A: Toxoplasmas - Toxoplasma gondii typically appear as tachyzoites or bradyzoites under staining, not crescent bodies. C: Dermotropic leishmania - Leishmania species appear as amastigotes in tissue smears, not crescent bodies. D: Viscerotropic leishmania - Similar to choice C, Leishmania species do not typically present as crescent bodies in stained specimens.
Question 7 of 9
Patients after splenectomy are of high risk of infections caused by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: After a splenectomy, patients are at high risk of infections caused by encapsulated bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Listeria monocytogenes, and Salmonella. The spleen plays a crucial role in the immune response against encapsulated bacteria, and its absence increases susceptibility to these specific pathogens. Therefore, all choices are correct as patients are at risk of infections from all three types of bacteria mentioned.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with fever and sore throat had a throat culture revealing Gram-positive cocci in chains. The bacteria were catalase-negative and beta-hemolytic. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. 1. Gram-positive cocci in chains: characteristic of Streptococcus species. 2. Catalase-negative: Streptococcus species are catalase-negative. 3. Beta-hemolytic: S. pyogenes is beta-hemolytic on blood agar. Therefore, S. pyogenes fits all these criteria. B: Streptococcus pneumoniae is catalase-negative but alpha-hemolytic, not beta-hemolytic. C: Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative, but not typically beta-hemolytic or in chains. D: Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and not in chains.
Question 9 of 9
Salmonellosis is caused by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Salmonella enteritidis. Salmonellosis is typically caused by Salmonella species, with Salmonella enteritidis being one of the common culprits. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, not salmonellosis. Shigella flexneri is responsible for causing shigellosis, a different bacterial infection. Choosing "None of the above" is incorrect as Salmonella enteritidis is a known cause of salmonellosis.