A 30-year-old paralegal analyst comes to your clinic, complaining of a bad-smelling vaginal discharge with some mild itching, present for about 3 weeks. She tried douching but it did not help. She has had no pain with urination or with sexual intercourse. She has noticed the smell increased after intercourse and during her period last week. She denies any upper respiratory, gastrointestinal, cardiac, or pulmonary symptoms. Her past medical history consists of one spontaneous vaginal delivery. She is married and has one child. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother has high blood pressure and her father died from a heart disease. On examination she appears healthy and has unremarkable vital signs. On examination of the perineum there are no lesions noted. On palpation of the inguinal nodes there is no lymphadenopathy. On speculum examination a thin gray-white discharge is seen in the vault. The pH of the discharge is over 5 and there is a fishy odor when potassium hydroxide (KOH) is applied to the vaginal secretions on the slide. Wet prep shows epithelial cells with stippled borders (clue cells). What type of vaginitis best describes her findings?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the scenario is classic for bacterial vaginosis (BV). BV is the most common cause of vaginal discharge in women of childbearing age. Key features of BV include a thin gray-white discharge with a fishy odor, which typically worsens after sexual intercourse and during menstruation. The discharge characteristically has a pH over 4.5, and the presence of clue cells on wet prep is diagnostic. Clue cells are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, giving them a stippled appearance when viewed under the microscope. These features are consistent with the findings in this patient.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Prostate cancer is more prevalent in certain ethnic groups, with African-American men having the highest risk of developing prostate cancer compared to men of other ethnicities. Additionally, men of Caribbean and West African descent also have an increased risk compared to men of Asian descent. This indicates that ethnicity plays a role in the risk of developing prostate cancer.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most likely cause of neck pain in this scenario is a cervical sprain. A cervical sprain is an injury to the ligaments in the neck as a result of sudden force or trauma, such as a motor vehicle collision. The symptoms of a cervical sprain typically include pain, stiffness in the neck, and muscle spasm. The fact that the patient has pain and spasm over the paraspinous muscles on one side of the neck, along with pain during active range of motion, is characteristic of a sprain. It is important to consider this diagnosis in individuals who have recently experienced trauma to the neck region. Treatment for a cervical sprain usually includes pain management, rest, and gentle stretching exercises to help with recovery.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The description provided indicates a presentation consistent with gonococcal arthritis. Gonococcal arthritis is an infectious arthritis caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Symptoms typically include red, swollen, and painful joints, especially affecting the distal joints of the limbs. The presence of papules, pustules, and vesicles on reddened bases at the distal extremities is characteristic of disseminated gonococcal infection. In women, the DIP joint involvement in the finger can be indicative of this condition. Prompt diagnosis and treatment with antibiotics are essential to prevent complications associated with gonococcal arthritis. It is important to consider a sexually transmitted infection like gonorrhea in young patients presenting with joint symptoms and cutaneous findings.