A 30 year old man took an overdose of 45 paracetamol 500 mg tablets 10 hours ago and is seen in the Emergency Department. Which is the most appropriate initial management?

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Psychiatric Emergencies Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 30 year old man took an overdose of 45 paracetamol 500 mg tablets 10 hours ago and is seen in the Emergency Department. Which is the most appropriate initial management?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the case of a 30-year-old man who overdosed on paracetamol, the most appropriate initial management is option D) No treatment required. This is the correct choice because the ingestion occurred 10 hours ago, and in cases of paracetamol overdose beyond 4 hours, the efficacy of interventions like gastric lavage or activated charcoal is limited. Awaiting paracetamol levels before further action, as in option A, could delay necessary treatment. Gastric lavage, as in option B, is not recommended due to the risk of complications and lack of proven benefit after the initial few hours post-ingestion. Giving 50 g charcoal orally, as in option C, is also not indicated at this stage. Educationally, understanding the time-sensitive nature of interventions in paracetamol overdose is crucial for healthcare providers managing psychiatric emergencies. This scenario highlights the importance of prompt assessment and appropriate decision-making based on the timeline of ingestion to optimize patient outcomes.

Question 2 of 5

A 54 year old man is unable to grip effectively with his right hand following recovery from a general anaesthetic for bowel surgery. Which is the most likely affected nerve?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the most likely affected nerve is the Radial nerve. The Radial nerve innervates the muscles responsible for extension at the elbow, wrist, and fingers. Following recovery from general anesthesia, a common complication is compression or injury to the Radial nerve, leading to weakness in grip strength. The other options can be ruled out based on their respective innervations and functions: - Axillary nerve: Innervates the deltoid and teres minor muscles, not responsible for grip strength. - Median nerve: Innervates muscles of the forearm and hand responsible for flexion, not directly related to grip strength loss. - Musculocutaneous nerve: Innervates the biceps brachii muscle, involved in elbow flexion, not grip strength. Educationally, understanding the innervation and functions of major nerves is crucial in diagnosing and managing neurological deficits postoperatively. This knowledge aids in identifying the specific nerve affected based on the presenting symptoms, guiding appropriate interventions and preventing further complications.

Question 3 of 5

A 65 year old woman has low mood, hopelessness, anhedonia, poor concentration, low energy, insomnia, lack of appetite and suicidal ideation for 8 weeks. Which is the most appropriate management?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate management for the 65-year-old woman presenting with symptoms of depression and suicidal ideation for 8 weeks would be option D) Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used to treat depression. Sertraline is a recommended first-line treatment for major depressive disorder due to its efficacy in improving mood, reducing suicidal ideation, and addressing associated symptoms like poor concentration, low energy, and sleep disturbances. SSRIs are often preferred over tricyclic antidepressants like Amitriptyline (option A) due to their more favorable side effect profile and safety in overdose situations. While therapy modalities like Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) (option B) and Psychodynamic Therapy (option C) are valuable adjuncts to pharmacological treatment for depression, in acute cases with significant suicidal ideation, initiating medication like Sertraline is crucial for immediate symptom relief and risk reduction. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind choosing the appropriate medication in psychiatric emergencies is vital for healthcare professionals working with individuals experiencing mental health crises. This case highlights the importance of timely intervention, risk assessment, and evidence-based treatment selection to ensure the safety and well-being of patients in crisis.

Question 4 of 5

A 64 year old man has retrosternal chest pain for 1 hour and is seen in the Emergency Department. Which is the most appropriate immediate test?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of a 64-year-old man presenting with retrosternal chest pain, the most appropriate immediate test is an ECG (Option D). An ECG is crucial in the evaluation of patients with chest pain as it can quickly detect abnormalities indicative of acute coronary syndromes such as ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) or non-ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). An angiogram (Option A) is an invasive procedure used to visualize blood vessels and is typically not the first-line test in the acute setting of chest pain. A chest X-ray (Option B) may help identify other causes of chest pain like pneumonia or pneumothorax but does not provide immediate information on cardiac status. Checking creatine kinase levels (Option C) can aid in diagnosing myocardial infarction but is not as immediate or specific as an ECG in diagnosing acute coronary syndromes. In an educational context, it is important for healthcare providers to understand the significance of prompt and accurate assessment of patients presenting with chest pain, especially in the setting of a potential cardiac emergency. Teaching the appropriate use of diagnostic tests like ECGs can help improve patient outcomes by enabling timely intervention and treatment.

Question 5 of 5

A 75 year old man has attended the Emergency Department with bruising to his forearms and face. Which is the most likely explanation for his bruising?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of psychiatric emergencies, it is crucial to consider the possibility of non-accidental injuries, especially in vulnerable populations like the elderly. The correct answer, B) Non-accidental injury, is the most likely explanation for the bruising in this case. Elder abuse, including physical abuse resulting in bruising, is unfortunately common and often underreported. Option A) Bleeding disorder is less likely in the absence of a history of bleeding tendencies or anticoagulant use. Occult malignancy, option C, typically presents with more generalized symptoms rather than localized bruising. Scurvy, option D, is rare in developed countries and is associated with a deficiency in Vitamin C, which would usually present with additional symptoms like poor wound healing and swollen gums. Educationally, understanding the signs and symptoms of elder abuse, including non-accidental injuries, is crucial for healthcare providers, especially those working in emergency departments or psychiatric settings. Recognizing and addressing such issues promptly can prevent further harm to the patient and ensure their safety and well-being.

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