A 30-year-old male patient who is treated with haloperidol for his diagnosis of schizophrenia is considered to be well-managed symptomatically for his psychotic symptoms. However, he is reporting restlessness, the inability to sit still at the dinner table, and his family notices that he is pacing up and down the hallway frequently. Of the following, which is the best medication to treat this antipsychotic-induced akathisia?

Correct Answer: E

Rationale: Haloperidol's D2 blockade causes akathisia—restlessness and pacing—as an EPS. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, reduces akathisia by modulating catecholamine activity, a first-line treatment per guidelines, unlike anticholinergics (benztropine) which target dystonia/parkinsonism. Dantrolene treats muscle spasticity, not akathisia. Amoxapine, an antidepressant, worsens psychosis. Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, risks psychosis exacerbation. Propranolol's efficacy, safety, and specificity for akathisia make it the best choice, replacing D as instructed.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Methotrexate, a DMARD, treats RA but risks renal toxicity from crystal formation. Drinking plenty of water ensures excretion, reducing this risk, a critical teaching point. Milk doesn't help'absorption is unaffected. Green leafy vegetables increase folate, which methotrexate depletes, but supplementation is controlled. Stopping if better risks flare-ups. Hydration aligns with methotrexate's pharmacokinetics, vital in RA where long-term safety matters, making A the priority to emphasize for renal protection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.