ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 2 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 30-year-old male patient is brought to the ER with the following symptoms attributed to a drug overdose: HR and BP, mydriasis, behavioral excitation, aggressiveness, paranoia, and hallucinations. Of the following drugs, which one is most likely to be responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amphetamine overdose causes sympathomimetic toxicity: elevated heart rate (HR) and blood pressure (BP) from catecholamine release, mydriasis via alpha-adrenergic stimulation, and CNS excitation—aggressiveness, paranoia, and hallucinations—due to dopamine and norepinephrine excess. Ethanol overdose typically depresses CNS, causing sedation, not excitation, despite possible tachycardia. Fentanyl, an opioid, leads to respiratory depression and miosis, opposite to these symptoms. Flunitrazepam, a benzodiazepine, sedates and lowers BP. Marijuana might cause paranoia but not this full sympathomimetic profile. Amphetamine's stimulant properties directly explain the cardiovascular, pupillary, and psychiatric symptoms, making it the most likely culprit in this acute presentation.
Question 2 of 5
Graded dose-response curves are most useful for determining
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Graded dose-response curves plot individual response intensity to dose increases (e.g., pain relief), a pharmacodynamic tool. Population curves (e.g., ED50) suit groups, not individuals. Large or small groups aggregate data, missing individual nuance. Individual focus defines graded curves, key for tailoring therapy.
Question 3 of 5
When administering the opioid Morphine to a patient, it is given in doses of
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct dosing regimen for Morphine typically ranges from 2-5 mg every 3-4 hours as needed for pain. This dosing schedule allows for effective management of pain while monitoring for potential side effects and adjusting the dosage according to the patient's response. Options B, C, and D have dosing regimens that are not within the typical range for Morphine administration and could lead to inappropriate dosing and potential harm to the patient.
Question 4 of 5
What action is often recommended to help reduce tolerance to transdermal nitroglycerin therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To help reduce tolerance to transdermal nitroglycerin therapy, it is often recommended to remove the patch at bedtime and then apply a new one in the morning. This drug-free period during sleep helps prevent the development of tolerance to nitroglycerin. By allowing the body to have a break from continuous exposure to the drug, the effectiveness of nitroglycerin can be maintained over time.
Question 5 of 5
The patient asks the nurse why she needs to continue using table salt because her prescribed lithium (Eskalith) is a salt. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lithium's renal clearance depends on sodium levels; low sodium causes lithium retention, risking toxicity (e.g., tremors, confusion). 'You must use table salt or your kidneys will retain lithium' explains this, ensuring safe levels. Choice A confuses with sea salt. Choice C risks toxicity by reacting late. Choice D downplays sodium's role. B educates accurately, making it the best response.