A 30-year-old male patient is brought to the ER with the following symptoms attributed to a drug overdose: HR and BP, mydriasis, behavioral excitation, aggressiveness, paranoia, and hallucinations. Of the following drugs, which one is most likely to be responsible for these symptoms?

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ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 2 Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 4

A 30-year-old male patient is brought to the ER with the following symptoms attributed to a drug overdose: HR and BP, mydriasis, behavioral excitation, aggressiveness, paranoia, and hallucinations. Of the following drugs, which one is most likely to be responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Amphetamine overdose causes sympathomimetic toxicity: elevated heart rate (HR) and blood pressure (BP) from catecholamine release, mydriasis via alpha-adrenergic stimulation, and CNS excitation—aggressiveness, paranoia, and hallucinations—due to dopamine and norepinephrine excess. Ethanol overdose typically depresses CNS, causing sedation, not excitation, despite possible tachycardia. Fentanyl, an opioid, leads to respiratory depression and miosis, opposite to these symptoms. Flunitrazepam, a benzodiazepine, sedates and lowers BP. Marijuana might cause paranoia but not this full sympathomimetic profile. Amphetamine's stimulant properties directly explain the cardiovascular, pupillary, and psychiatric symptoms, making it the most likely culprit in this acute presentation.

Question 2 of 4

The patient asks the nurse why she needs to continue using table salt because her prescribed lithium (Eskalith) is a salt. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Lithium's renal clearance depends on sodium levels; low sodium causes lithium retention, risking toxicity (e.g., tremors, confusion). 'You must use table salt or your kidneys will retain lithium' explains this, ensuring safe levels. Choice A confuses with sea salt. Choice C risks toxicity by reacting late. Choice D downplays sodium's role. B educates accurately, making it the best response.

Question 3 of 4

A client with asthma is prescribed albuterol (Proventil) via inhaler. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Albuterol, a short-acting beta-agonist, relieves acute asthma symptoms by bronchodilation. Shaking the inhaler well ensures proper aerosolization of the dose, maximizing delivery to the lungs. Using it daily is incorrect'albuterol is PRN, not preventive like inhaled steroids. Holding breath for 2 seconds is too short; 10 seconds is standard to deposit medication. Daily soap-and-water cleaning risks damage'weekly rinsing suffices. Shaking aligns with albuterol's delivery mechanism, critical for efficacy in asthma exacerbations where rapid relief is needed. This instruction prevents misuse, ensuring the client gets the full therapeutic effect, especially in emergencies. Other options either misalign with its PRN use or exaggerate care needs, making B the essential teaching point for safe, effective administration.

Question 4 of 4

The following are recognized as causes of drug-induced aplastic anemia:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

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