ATI RN
Essential of Pediatric Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 3-year-old child from a suburban community presents with vomiting, diarrhea, and blurred vision. Physical examination reveals an afebrile child with pinpoint pupils, salivation, and muscular fasciculations. The child's lawn was treated yesterday for insects. Which of the following tests will establish the correct diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Plasma cholinesterase level. The symptoms described are indicative of organophosphate poisoning, commonly seen with exposure to insecticides like malathion. Testing plasma cholinesterase levels helps to confirm this diagnosis as organophosphates inhibit this enzyme. Option A) Blood-lead level is not relevant in this case as lead poisoning presents differently and is not associated with the symptoms described. Option B) 24-hour urine mercury level is also not appropriate as mercury poisoning typically presents differently and is not linked to insecticide exposure. Option D) Urine malathion level may seem relevant but testing for the actual insecticide level in urine is less accurate compared to assessing the biological impact through plasma cholinesterase levels. Educationally, understanding the specific manifestations of different poisonings, appropriate diagnostic tests, and their interpretation is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide timely and accurate care to poisoned children. This question highlights the importance of clinical judgment and knowledge in pediatric toxicology to ensure effective management and treatment.
Question 2 of 5
HIV antibody testing procedures using a finger stick or venipuncture to obtain whole blood, plasma, or serum, and tests using oral fluid were approved. All the following regarding this test are true EXCEPT
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this case, option B is the correct answer because a positive result from HIV antibody testing procedures using finger stick, venipuncture, or oral fluid does require confirmation by Western blot analysis or immunofluorescence assay to ensure accuracy. Option A is incorrect because while these tests are generally simple and accurate, there is still a possibility of erroneous results by the user if not conducted properly. Option C is incorrect as it inaccurately implies that these tests alone can reduce the risk of mother-to-child transmission without considering the need for confirmatory testing and appropriate interventions. Option D is also incorrect because while early detection and treatment of HIV in pregnant women can significantly reduce the risk of mother-to-child transmission, the testing procedures themselves do not directly impact transmission rates without proper follow-up and care. In an educational context, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to understand the limitations and requirements of HIV testing procedures to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate management. Emphasizing the need for confirmatory testing and comprehensive care for patients is essential in preventing the spread of HIV and providing optimal support for affected individuals.
Question 3 of 5
Between 2-6 months of life, all are true about infant sleep EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) the sleep cycle time is similar to that of adults. Explanation: Infants between 2-6 months of age have a different sleep cycle compared to adults. Their sleep patterns are characterized by shorter sleep cycles, usually ranging from 50-60 minutes, compared to the 90-minute sleep cycles of adults. This shorter sleep cycle is essential for the infant's brain development and growth during this crucial stage of life. It allows infants to transition through different sleep stages more frequently, including REM (rapid eye movement) sleep, which is crucial for their cognitive development. Why the other options are wrong: A) Total sleep hours are about 14-16 hr/24 hr: This statement is true for infants in this age range. Infants need a significant amount of sleep to support their rapid growth and development. B) Sleeps about 9-10 hr concentrated at night: It is common for infants in this age group to have most of their sleep concentrated at night as they start to develop a more regular sleep-wake cycle. C) Sleeps 2 naps/day: Infants typically take multiple naps throughout the day to meet their high sleep needs and support their growth and development. Educational context: Understanding infant sleep patterns is crucial for pediatric nurses as they play a vital role in educating parents about healthy sleep habits for their infants. By knowing the specifics of infant sleep, nurses can provide valuable guidance to parents on creating a safe and conducive sleep environment, establishing bedtime routines, and recognizing normal sleep patterns versus potential sleep disturbances. This knowledge helps promote optimal growth, development, and overall well-being in infants.
Question 4 of 5
A 5 months child is brought for routine care. During auscultation of heart you find a short systolic murmur at left upper sternal border with soft 2nd heart sound. The most likely diagnosis is?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Atrial septal defect (ASD). In a 5-month-old child presenting with a short systolic murmur at the left upper sternal border and a soft 2nd heart sound, ASD is the most likely diagnosis. This is because ASD commonly presents with a systolic ejection murmur at the left upper sternal border due to increased blood flow across the pulmonic valve. The soft 2nd heart sound is characteristic of ASD as well. Option A) Ventricular septal defect (VSD) typically presents with a harsh holosystolic murmur at the lower left sternal border. Option C) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) presents with a continuous machinery murmur. Option D) Pulmonary stenosis presents with a systolic ejection murmur at the upper left sternal border but without the soft 2nd heart sound. Educationally, understanding these differences in murmur characteristics and associated findings is crucial for pediatric nurses to accurately assess and diagnose common congenital heart defects in children. This knowledge helps in early identification, appropriate referral, and timely intervention to optimize patient outcomes.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is using the FLACC scale to rate the pain level in a 9-month-old. Which is the nurse's best response to the father's question of what the FLACC scale is?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) It estimates a child's level of pain utilizing behavioral and physical responses. The FLACC scale is a validated pain assessment tool specifically designed for nonverbal pediatric patients, like infants and young children. It assesses pain based on observable behaviors such as facial expression, leg movement, activity level, cry, and consolability. This scale provides a structured way for healthcare providers to evaluate and quantify pain in children who cannot communicate their discomfort verbally. Option A is incorrect because the FLACC scale focuses on behavioral and physical responses, not vital signs. Option B is incorrect as it mentions parents' perception, which is not the basis of the FLACC scale. Option D is also incorrect because the FLACC scale does not use a numeric scale from 0 to 5 but rather a scoring system based on specific behavioral cues. Educationally, understanding pain assessment tools like the FLACC scale is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide optimal care to young patients. It ensures accurate pain assessment and appropriate interventions, leading to improved outcomes and increased patient comfort. Nurses must be knowledgeable about these tools to advocate for effective pain management in pediatric settings.