ATI RN
Microbiology Basic and Clinical Principles Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 3 month old infant has got a white deposition on the mucous membrane of his mouth, tongue and lips. The doctor suspected candidosis. What nutrient medium should be used for inoculation of the material under examination in order to confirm this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sabouraud. Sabouraud agar is specifically designed for the cultivation of fungi and yeasts, making it ideal for identifying Candida species causing candidosis. It contains antibiotics to inhibit bacterial growth, promoting the growth of fungi. Endo, Loewenstein-Jensen, and Roux are not suitable for fungal cultures and are used for different purposes like bacterial isolation or mycobacterial cultures. Sabouraud agar is the best choice for confirming candidosis due to its fungal-selective properties.
Question 2 of 9
It is often difficult for antibiotics to effectively reach the infection site of osteomyelitis primarily because of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: destruction of the local blood supply. In osteomyelitis, the infection occurs in the bone, which has a relatively poor blood supply compared to soft tissues. This limited blood flow makes it challenging for antibiotics to reach the infection site effectively, hindering their ability to combat the infection. Destruction of the local blood supply restricts the delivery of antibiotics and immune cells to the infected bone, leading to poor treatment outcomes. Summary: - Option A is correct because the limited blood supply in bones hinders antibiotic delivery. - Option B is incorrect as denaturing by normal flora does not impact antibiotic reach to the infection site. - Option C is incorrect as inflammation and edema, while present, do not primarily hinder antibiotic delivery. - Option D is incorrect as excessive pus production does not directly impede antibiotic access to the infection site.
Question 3 of 9
The most important mechanism of tetracycline resistance is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased active efflux from the bacterial cell. This is the most important mechanism of tetracycline resistance because it involves the bacteria actively pumping out the antibiotic, reducing its intracellular concentration. This prevents tetracycline from effectively targeting bacterial ribosomes. Choice A is incorrect as tetracycline resistance typically involves active efflux rather than reduced influx. Choice B is incorrect because tetracycline resistance mechanisms do not primarily involve altered cell membrane components affecting passive influx. Choice D is also incorrect as tetracycline resistance mechanisms do not typically involve direct enzymatic inactivation of the antibiotic.
Question 4 of 9
Which are the epidemic typhus vectors:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Head lice. Epidemic typhus is transmitted by the body louse, Pediculus humanus humanus, which is different from the head louse, Pediculus humanus capitis. Head lice are not known to transmit epidemic typhus. Body lice are the primary vectors for transmitting epidemic typhus. Fleas are vectors for other diseases such as plague, not epidemic typhus. Ticks are vectors for various diseases but not for epidemic typhus. Therefore, the correct vector for epidemic typhus transmission is body lice, making choice A the correct answer.
Question 5 of 9
Treponema pallidum and Borrelia burgdorferi belong to the group of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Treponema pallidum and Borrelia burgdorferi are both spirochetes. 2. Spirochetes are characterized by their spiral shape and unique motility. 3. Both organisms exhibit corkscrew-like movement due to axial filaments. 4. Other choices are incorrect as Treponema and Borrelia are not gram-negative rods, cocci, or anaerobic cocci. Summary: The correct answer is D because Treponema pallidum and Borrelia burgdorferi are spirochetes, characterized by their spiral shape and motility. Other choices are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the characteristics of these organisms.
Question 6 of 9
A lymph node punctate of a patient with suspected protozoa disease was examined. Examination of the stained specimen (Romanovsky's stain) revealed some crescent bodies with pointed end, blue cytoplasm and red nucleus. What protozoan were revealed in the smears?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malarial plasmodiums. The description of crescent bodies with a pointed end, blue cytoplasm, and red nucleus corresponds to the characteristics of Plasmodium species seen in Romanovsky's stain. Plasmodium species are known to cause malaria and have distinct features like the ones described. Incorrect choices: A: Toxoplasmas - Toxoplasma gondii typically appear as tachyzoites or bradyzoites under staining, not crescent bodies. C: Dermotropic leishmania - Leishmania species appear as amastigotes in tissue smears, not crescent bodies. D: Viscerotropic leishmania - Similar to choice C, Leishmania species do not typically present as crescent bodies in stained specimens.
Question 7 of 9
Microscopy of a smear taken from the film that appeared on the peptone water 6 hours after seeding and culturing of a fecal sample in a thermostat revealed mobile gram-negative bacteria curved in form of a comma that didn't make spores or capsules. What microorganisms were revealed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vibrios. Vibrios are gram-negative curved bacteria that are motile and do not form spores or capsules. The description of the bacteria in the question fits the characteristics of Vibrios. Vibrios are commonly found in aquatic environments and some species can cause gastrointestinal infections in humans. B: Spirochetes are also gram-negative curved bacteria, but they are spiral-shaped and have unique axial filaments for motility. The description in the question does not match the characteristics of spirochetes. C: Clostridia are gram-positive, spore-forming bacteria. The question specifically states that the bacteria are gram-negative and do not form spores, ruling out Clostridia. D: Corynebacteria are gram-positive, non-spore-forming bacteria. The description in the question does not match the characteristics of Corynebacteria.
Question 8 of 9
Dengue virus is member of a family called
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flaviviridae. Dengue virus belongs to the Flaviviridae family because it is a flavivirus. Flaviviruses are a group of RNA viruses known to cause diseases in humans, such as dengue fever, Zika virus, and yellow fever. This family is characterized by its single-stranded, positive-sense RNA genome and enveloped virion structure. Hepadnaviridae (choice A), Parvoviridae (choice B), and Picornaviridae (choice D) are all different families of viruses that do not include the dengue virus. Hepadnaviridae includes hepatitis B virus, Parvoviridae includes parvoviruses, and Picornaviridae includes enteroviruses like poliovirus.
Question 9 of 9
A patient suffers from severe postoperative pseudomonadous infection. What of the following antibiotics should be administered in this case?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amikacin sulfate. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly resistant to many antibiotics, but aminoglycosides like Amikacin have good activity against it. Step 1: Identify the pathogen causing the infection. Step 2: Consider the antibiotic's spectrum of activity against the pathogen. Step 3: Choose an antibiotic with proven efficacy. Amikacin is a good choice due to its effectiveness against Pseudomonas. Choice B, Benzylpenicillin, is a penicillin which is not effective against Pseudomonas. Choice C, Cephazolin, is a cephalosporin with limited activity against Pseudomonas. Choice D, Erythromycin, is a macrolide which is not effective against Pseudomonas.