A 3-day-old neonate has a large, soft, painless mass involving the head and neck region that mostly transilluminate; CT scan reveals a cystic mass involving the neck and intrathoracic mediastinum. The BEST modality for treatment of this neonate is

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Pediatric NCLEX Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 3-day-old neonate has a large, soft, painless mass involving the head and neck region that mostly transilluminate; CT scan reveals a cystic mass involving the neck and intrathoracic mediastinum. The BEST modality for treatment of this neonate is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) surgical resection for the treatment of this neonate with a cystic mass involving the neck and intrathoracic mediastinum. Surgical resection is the best modality as it allows for the complete removal of the cystic mass, preventing any potential complications or growth of the mass. In pediatric cases, surgery is often the primary treatment option for cystic masses to avoid any further risk or complications. Option B) injection sclerosing agent, C) laser therapy, and D) systemic interferon therapy are not appropriate in this scenario. Injection sclerosing agent and laser therapy are more suitable for superficial lesions and may not be effective for a deep-seated cystic mass like the one described in the question. Systemic interferon therapy is not indicated for this type of neonatal condition. Educationally, understanding the appropriate treatment modalities for different pediatric conditions is crucial for nursing practice. Surgical resection is often the gold standard for treating cystic masses in neonates to ensure complete removal and optimal outcomes for the patient. This case highlights the importance of clinical decision-making and the need to select the most appropriate intervention based on the specific characteristics of the patient's condition.

Question 2 of 5

A 9mo-old infant develops a left adrenal mass; histological examination with genetic characteristics confirms neuroblastoma. Which of the following carries a better outcome?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is option B) hyperdiploidy. In pediatric neuroblastoma, hyperdiploidy is associated with a better prognosis. Hyperdiploidy refers to an extra set of chromosomes, which is a favorable genetic characteristic in neuroblastoma and is linked to a less aggressive form of the disease. This leads to a lower risk of disease progression and better treatment response. Option A) amplification of the MYCN proto-oncogene is associated with a poorer prognosis in neuroblastoma. This genetic alteration indicates a more aggressive form of the disease with a higher risk of progression. Option C) loss of heterozygosity of 17q chromosome and option D) loss of 1p chromosome are also associated with unfavorable outcomes in neuroblastoma. These genetic changes are linked to higher-risk disease features and poorer response to treatment. In an educational context, understanding the genetic characteristics of pediatric neuroblastoma is crucial for nurses and healthcare professionals caring for pediatric oncology patients. Recognizing the implications of different genetic alterations can guide treatment decisions and help predict patient outcomes, ultimately improving the quality of care provided to children with neuroblastoma.

Question 3 of 5

The serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level is elevated with some malignant germ cell tumors (GCTs) especially endodermal sinus tumors; it can be used as a measure of treatment response and during follow-up after completion of chemotherapy. However, it is normally elevated during infancy. At which age does AFP physiologically fall to normal adult level?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) one year. The physiological decrease of serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels to normal adult levels occurs by one year of age. During infancy, AFP levels are typically elevated but gradually decrease as the child grows. This normalization of AFP levels by one year is important to understand when interpreting lab results in pediatric patients. Option A) three months is incorrect because AFP levels do not fall to normal adult levels by this age. Option B) eight months is also incorrect as the physiological decrease to adult levels has not occurred by this time. Option D) three years is incorrect as AFP levels should normalize by one year, not by three years. Understanding the age at which AFP levels should reach adult levels is crucial for pediatric healthcare providers to accurately assess treatment response and monitor for recurrence in patients with malignant germ cell tumors. This knowledge aids in making informed clinical decisions and providing optimal care for pediatric patients.

Question 4 of 5

A one-month-old patient, who has developmental dysplasia of the hip, is placed in a hip spica cast. The patient's mother expresses the desire to continue breastfeeding. What is the pediatric nurse's best response?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Breastfeeding can continue without significant changes; ensure proper positioning to accommodate the cast. This response is the best because breastfeeding is important for the infant's nutrition, bonding, and overall well-being. The hip spica cast should not hinder breastfeeding significantly if the mother is mindful of positioning to ensure comfort for both herself and the baby. Option A is not the best response as it only addresses positioning after breastfeeding, but does not affirm that breastfeeding itself can continue as normal. Option B is incorrect because it discourages breastfeeding without proper justification. Breastfeeding can still be done successfully with a hip spica cast in place. Providing this educational context is crucial for pediatric nurses to support and empower mothers to continue breastfeeding despite challenges such as a hip spica cast. It is essential to promote breastfeeding as the optimal feeding choice for infants whenever possible. Supporting mothers in overcoming obstacles helps to ensure the best outcomes for both the baby and the mother.

Question 5 of 5

Prenatal exposure to cigarette smoke is associated with

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) neonatal diabetes. Prenatal exposure to cigarette smoke is associated with an increased risk of neonatal diabetes due to the harmful chemicals and toxins present in tobacco smoke that can disrupt normal fetal development, potentially affecting the pancreas and insulin production in the newborn. Option A) shorter neonatal length and Option B) lower birthweight are commonly associated with maternal smoking during pregnancy, but they are not directly linked to neonatal diabetes. These outcomes are more related to restricted fetal growth and development due to the vasoconstrictive effects of nicotine and carbon monoxide in cigarettes. Option C) changes in neonatal behavior can also be a consequence of prenatal exposure to cigarette smoke, as nicotine can cross the placenta and affect the developing brain, leading to alterations in behavior. However, this is not specifically linked to neonatal diabetes. In an educational context, understanding the implications of prenatal exposure to cigarette smoke on neonatal health is crucial for healthcare professionals working with pregnant women and newborns. It highlights the importance of smoking cessation interventions during pregnancy to reduce the risk of adverse outcomes for both the mother and the baby. Educating expectant mothers about the dangers of smoking and providing support for quitting can help improve maternal and neonatal health outcomes.

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