A 29-year-old physical therapist presents for evaluation of an eyelid problem. On observation, the right eyeball appears to be protruding forward. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Exophthalmos. Exophthalmos refers to protrusion of the eyeball, which is a hallmark sign of thyroid eye disease. This condition commonly presents with forward bulging of one or both eyes due to inflammation and swelling of the eye muscles and tissues behind the eye. It is often associated with hyperthyroidism. A: Ptosis is drooping of the upper eyelid, not protrusion of the eyeball. C: Ectropion is an outward turning of the eyelid, not protrusion of the eyeball. D: Epicanthus is a vertical fold of skin on the upper eyelid near the nose, not protrusion of the eyeball.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clonus. Clonus is a series of rhythmic, involuntary muscle contractions and relaxations that occur due to an abnormal response in the stretch reflex. In patients with neurological conditions like cerebral palsy, clonus is often observed due to increased muscle tone. Tremor (A) is a rhythmic shaking movement, not specifically associated with muscle contractions. Spasm (C) is a sudden, involuntary muscle contraction that is not typically rhythmic. Fasciculation (D) is a brief, spontaneous contraction of a small number of muscle fibers, not the rhythmic pattern seen in clonus.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because decreased tactile fremitus suggests fluid or air in the pleural space, which can occur in conditions like pleural effusion or pneumothorax. This decrease in tactile fremitus is due to the transmission of vibrations from the vocal cords being impeded by the presence of fluid or air between the lung and chest wall. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased tactile fremitus is not typically associated with increased lung density, normal lung function, or lung tumors.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Papilledema. Diabetic retinopathy is a microvascular complication of diabetes that primarily affects the retina's blood vessels. Papilledema, which is optic disc swelling due to increased intracranial pressure, is not a typical finding in diabetic retinopathy. Dot and blot hemorrhages, microaneurysms, and cotton wool spots are commonly seen in diabetic retinopathy due to retinal vessel damage and ischemia. Papilledema is more associated with conditions like intracranial hypertension or optic neuritis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 32 cm. At 32 weeks gestation, fundal height should typically correspond to the number of weeks of gestation. This is known as the McDonald's rule. The NP would suspect fetal growth if the fundal height is not within a range of +/- 2 cm from the expected measurement. In this case, 32 cm aligns with the expected fundal height for a pregnancy at 32 weeks gestation. Therefore, it indicates appropriate fetal growth. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the expected fundal height for a pregnancy at 32 weeks gestation, suggesting possible issues with fetal growth.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A sebaceous cyst. A sebaceous cyst typically presents as a lump underneath the skin that can be squeezed to release a cheesy substance, consistent with Jacob's description. The formation of a prominent dimple when gently pinched is characteristic of a cyst, indicating it is filled with fluid or semi-solid material. Sebaceous cysts are usually benign and can grow slowly over time. Incorrect choices: A: An enlarged lymph node - Unlikely as lymph nodes are typically not associated with cheesy discharge or the formation of a dimple when pinched. C: An actinic keratosis - Unlikely as actinic keratosis is a precancerous skin condition caused by sun exposure, not presenting with cheesy discharge or a dimple. D: A malignant lesion - Unlikely as malignant lesions usually do not produce cheesy discharge and are more aggressive in growth compared to a sebaceous cyst.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A: Supraspinatus. This muscle is responsible for initiating abduction movement at the shoulder joint. It is located on the top of the shoulder blade and assists in lifting the arm away from the body. The other choices, B: Infraspinatus, C: Levator scapulae muscle, and D: Subscapularis, are not involved in initiating abduction movement at the shoulder. Infraspinatus is responsible for external rotation, Levator scapulae muscle elevates the scapula, and Subscapularis assists in internal rotation of the shoulder joint.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because in Munchausen syndrome by proxy, the patient only exhibits symptoms under the direct care or supervision of the abuser. This is because the abuser intentionally causes or fabricates symptoms in the victim to gain attention or sympathy. In contrast, the other choices are incorrect. A is incorrect because the injury is inflicted by the abuser, not self-inflicted by the patient. C is incorrect as the caregiver is the one perpetrating the abuse. D is incorrect because the abuser is often overly involved and manipulative, rather than inattentive and uncaring.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine are neurotransmitters commonly associated with mood regulation. Medications that affect these neurotransmitters can lead to symptoms of depression as a side effect. B: Gabapentin is not primarily associated with mood regulation. C: Milnacipran is an SNRI used to treat depression, not cause it. D: Cortisol is a stress hormone, not a neurotransmitter directly linked to depression symptoms.