ATI RN
Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 29-year-old physical therapist presents for evaluation of an eyelid problem. On observation, the right eyeball appears to be protruding forward. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Exophthalmos. Exophthalmos refers to protrusion of the eyeball, which is a hallmark sign of thyroid eye disease. This condition commonly presents with forward bulging of one or both eyes due to inflammation and swelling of the eye muscles and tissues behind the eye. It is often associated with hyperthyroidism. A: Ptosis is drooping of the upper eyelid, not protrusion of the eyeball. C: Ectropion is an outward turning of the eyelid, not protrusion of the eyeball. D: Epicanthus is a vertical fold of skin on the upper eyelid near the nose, not protrusion of the eyeball.
Question 2 of 9
You are beginning the examination of the skin on a 25-year-old teacher. You have previously elicited that she came to the office for evaluation of fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss. You strongly suspect that she has hypothyroidism. What is the expected moisture and texture of the skin of a patient with hypothyroidism?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dry and rough. In hypothyroidism, there is reduced secretion of sweat and oils, leading to dry skin. The lack of hydration causes the skin to become rough. This correlates with the clinical presentation of fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss, which are common symptoms of hypothyroidism. Choices A and B are incorrect because moisture is reduced in hypothyroidism, resulting in dry skin. Choice C is incorrect because the lack of oils in hypothyroidism leads to rough skin texture, not smooth.
Question 3 of 9
The purpose of the expanded assessment when using the LAPSS is to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The purpose of the expanded assessment when using the LAPSS is to determine whether there are other possible causes of the patient's signs and symptoms. This is because LAPSS primarily focuses on identifying stroke symptoms, so the expanded assessment helps rule out other potential conditions. Option A is incorrect because LAPSS does not primarily assess circulation. Option B is incorrect because LAPSS is not specifically designed to determine compartment syndrome. Option D is incomplete and does not provide any information to support it as the correct answer.
Question 4 of 9
An 85-year-old man with newly diagnosed nonvalvular atrial fibrillation comes to the office for a follow-up. Which medication change would be most appropriate for reducing his stroke risk?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop aspirin and begin apixaban 5 mg twice a day. The rationale is that for stroke risk reduction in nonvalvular atrial fibrillation, anticoagulation therapy with direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) like apixaban is preferred over antiplatelet therapy like aspirin. DOACs have been shown to be more effective in reducing stroke risk with a lower bleeding risk compared to warfarin. Choice A is incorrect as aspirin alone is not sufficient for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. Choice B is incorrect as warfarin has more monitoring requirements and potential drug interactions compared to DOACs like apixaban. Choice D is incorrect as aspirin and apixaban together are not recommended due to increased bleeding risk.
Question 5 of 9
What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults due to its prevalence and ability to cause infections in the lungs. It accounts for a significant portion of pneumonia cases worldwide. Staphylococcus aureus (A) is more commonly associated with healthcare-associated pneumonia. Mycoplasma pneumoniae (C) typically causes atypical pneumonia, which tends to be milder and more common in younger individuals. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D) is more commonly seen in individuals with underlying health conditions or compromised immune systems, rather than in healthy adults with community-acquired pneumonia.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following complaints best describes lower extremity calf pain associated with peripheral artery disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A dull pain or cramp. In peripheral artery disease, calf pain is typically described as a dull ache or cramp due to inadequate blood flow to the muscles during exercise. This pain is known as claudication. Choice A is incorrect as sharp, stabbing pain is not typically associated with peripheral artery disease. Choice C, an electric shock, is more indicative of nerve-related conditions. Choice D, a pulsating pain, is more characteristic of an aneurysm rather than peripheral artery disease.
Question 7 of 9
Mr. Roberts, a 72-year-old patient who has sought medical care on an intermittent basis in the past, complains of aching discomfort in his perineal area, urinary urgency, and frequency for the past few years. He also complains of insomnia and intermittent anxiety that he attributes to loneliness after his wife’s death about a year ago. Digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals a slightly enlarged, nontender prostate with no palpable nodules. Perineal examination is normal. Bladder scan is unremarkable and postvoid residual urine volume is 50 mL. Urinalysis shows no WBCs or RBCs. Urine culture is negative. Previous treatment has included dietary modifications and alpha-blocker medication. What is the most appropriate next step?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Screen for depression. The patient's symptoms of insomnia, anxiety, and loneliness after his wife's death suggest he may be experiencing depression, which can manifest as physical symptoms like urinary urgency and frequency. Since the patient has already received appropriate treatment for his urinary symptoms, addressing his mental health is the next crucial step. This can help improve his overall well-being and quality of life. Starting an antibiotic course (choice A) is not indicated as there are no signs of infection. Initiating a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor (choice B) is not necessary given the absence of specific indications such as obstructive voiding symptoms. Urodynamic testing (choice C) is not warranted at this stage as the patient's history and findings do not suggest underlying bladder dysfunction.
Question 8 of 9
Estrogen-progestin contraceptives should be avoided in women with:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Migraines with aura. Estrogen in contraceptives can increase the risk of stroke in patients with migraines with aura due to its effect on blood clotting. Estrogen-progestin contraceptives should be avoided in these patients to reduce the risk of adverse cardiovascular events. Choices A, C, and D do not have a direct contraindication to estrogen-progestin contraceptives based on current guidelines.
Question 9 of 9
Pregnant women are evaluated for syphilis with serology testing because:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because syphilis during pregnancy can lead to adverse outcomes for the fetus, such as spontaneous abortion or congenital syphilis. This is due to the ability of the Treponema pallidum bacterium to cross the placenta and infect the fetus. Testing pregnant women for syphilis helps identify and treat the infection early to prevent these complications. Choice B is incorrect because hormonal changes do not trigger activation of latent syphilis. Choice C is incorrect as syphilis can be transmitted to the fetus at any point during pregnancy, not just in the third trimester. Choice D is incorrect because while untreated syphilis can have various complications, neonatal respiratory distress is not a direct consequence of syphilis infection during pregnancy.