ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Assessment 2 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 29-year-old man with recurrent allergic rhinitis presents to his primary care physician for evaluation. He states that his symptoms are more problematic lately and desires treatment. He has begun on fexofenadine. Which of the following adverse reactions is possible in this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fexofenadine, a non-sedating antihistamine, may cause headache , a common side effect. Anxiety , cough , otitis , and respiratory infection (E) are less frequent. Its minimal CNS penetration suits rhinitis, but headache requires awareness.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse has completed medication education with the patient who is receiving risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse evaluates that the education has been effective when the patient makes which statement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, can cause agranulocytosis, a rare but life-threatening drop in white blood cells, necessitating regular blood monitoring . This statement reflects understanding of a critical safety measure, indicating effective education. Nightmares aren't a primary concern with risperidone. Weight loss contrasts with its common side effect of weight gain, making it less relevant. Metallic taste isn't associated with this drug. The nurse evaluates learning based on recognition of monitoring for severe adverse effects like agranulocytosis, ensuring patient safety, making choice B the best indicator of comprehension.
Question 3 of 5
The patient with schizophrenia is sitting quietly in a chair. The patient does not respond much to what is happening and has a lack of interest in the environment. How does the nurse interpret this assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Schizophrenia's negative symptoms include apathy and withdrawal, seen in quietness and disinterest . Depression needs more evidence. Voices suggest positive symptoms, absent here. Positive symptoms add behaviors, not subtract. D aligns with schizophrenia's clinical presentation, making it the correct interpretation.
Question 4 of 5
A client is prescribed prednisone for rheumatoid arthritis. Which side effect should the nurse teach the client to report immediately?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, manages inflammation but risks serious side effects. Blurred vision may signal glaucoma or cataracts, ocular emergencies requiring immediate reporting to prevent vision loss. Increased appetite and weight gain are common, manageable effects of cortisol excess. Mood swings occur due to CNS effects but are less urgent unless severe. Blurred vision stands out as a rare but critical adverse reaction, linked to prednisone's long-term impact on intraocular pressure or lens opacity. Teaching this ensures early detection, aligning with corticosteroid monitoring where eye complications can escalate fast. Appetite, weight, and mood changes, while disruptive, don't match this urgency, making C the priority side effect for the client to report promptly.
Question 5 of 5
The following drugs are most commonly associated with nephrotoxicity:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gentamicin is associated with nephrotoxicity, particularly when administered in high doses or for prolonged periods.