ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 2 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 29-year-old man who is a known alcoholic is able to purchase phencyclidine from another user of this substance. He takes a 'triple dose' of the substance. Which of the following effects is likely to be observed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: PCP overdose (triple dose) causes dissociative effects; eyes remain open , with nystagmus common. Loss of consciousness needs higher doses. Numbness occurs, but open eyes are hallmark. Normal gait and speech (E) contradict ataxia. PCP's profile fits this.
Question 2 of 9
Graded dose-response curves are most useful for determining
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Graded dose-response curves plot individual response intensity to dose increases (e.g., pain relief), a pharmacodynamic tool. Population curves (e.g., ED50) suit groups, not individuals. Large or small groups aggregate data, missing individual nuance. Individual focus defines graded curves, key for tailoring therapy.
Question 3 of 9
A client with asthma is prescribed albuterol (Proventil) via inhaler. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol, a short-acting beta-agonist, relieves acute asthma symptoms by bronchodilation. Shaking the inhaler well ensures proper aerosolization of the dose, maximizing delivery to the lungs. Using it daily is incorrect'albuterol is PRN, not preventive like inhaled steroids. Holding breath for 2 seconds is too short; 10 seconds is standard to deposit medication. Daily soap-and-water cleaning risks damage'weekly rinsing suffices. Shaking aligns with albuterol's delivery mechanism, critical for efficacy in asthma exacerbations where rapid relief is needed. This instruction prevents misuse, ensuring the client gets the full therapeutic effect, especially in emergencies. Other options either misalign with its PRN use or exaggerate care needs, making B the essential teaching point for safe, effective administration.
Question 4 of 9
The following are recognized as causes of drug-induced aplastic anemia:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chloramphenicol is a known cause of drug-induced aplastic anemia due to its toxic effects on bone marrow.
Question 5 of 9
The patient has been receiving amitriptyline (Elavil) for 2 weeks. He tells the nurse he doesn't think this medicine is working, as he is still depressed. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amitriptyline, a TCA, needs 4-6 weeks for full antidepressant effect-serotonin/norepinephrine buildup, per pharmacology. ‘Looking better' dismisses feelings. Switching meds is premature-2 weeks is early. Months overstates delay. Weeks to effect educates, setting realistic hope.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following types of insulin is “long-acting�
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Glargine insulin, commonly known by the brand name Lantus, is a long-acting type of insulin. It is designed to provide a steady level of insulin over an extended period, usually lasting up to 24 hours. This type of insulin is often used as a basal insulin to help control blood sugar levels between meals and overnight. In contrast, Lispro (Humalog) is a rapid-acting insulin used to manage blood sugar spikes after meals, NPH (Humulin N) is an intermediate-acting insulin, and Regular insulin (Humulin R) is a short-acting insulin.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is working with a graduate nurse to prepare an intravenous dose of potassium. Which statement by the graduate nurse reflects a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The statement "The intravenous potassium dose will be given undiluted" reflects a need for further teaching. Potassium should always be diluted before administration to reduce the risk of causing irritation or damage to the veins. Administration of concentrated potassium solution can lead to serious complications, including local tissue damage, phlebitis, and even cardiac arrest. It is essential to dilute intravenous potassium solutions to ensure safe administration and minimize the risk of adverse effects.
Question 8 of 9
A 29-year-old man who is a known alcoholic is able to purchase phencyclidine from another user of this substance. He takes a 'triple dose' of the substance. Which of the following effects is likely to be observed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: PCP overdose (triple dose) causes dissociative effects; eyes remain open , with nystagmus common. Loss of consciousness needs higher doses. Numbness occurs, but open eyes are hallmark. Normal gait and speech (E) contradict ataxia. PCP's profile fits this.
Question 9 of 9
A 74-year-old professional golfer has chest pain that occurs toward the end of his golfing games. He says the pain usually goes away after one or two sublingual nitroglycerin tablets and rest. What type of angina is he experiencing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The 74-year-old professional golfer is likely experiencing Prinzmetal™s angina, also known as variant angina. This type of angina is characterized by episodes of chest pain that occur at rest or during minimal physical exertion. It is caused by a spasm in the coronary arteries, leading to a temporary reduction or cessation of blood flow to the heart muscle. The chest pain associated with Prinzmetal™s angina can be severe and is often relieved by sublingual nitroglycerin, as described by the golfer. Additionally, the fact that the pain occurs towards the end of his golfing games suggests that it may be triggered by stress or exertion, common triggers for coronary artery spasm in Prinzmetal's angina.