A 29-year-old gravida 1, para 0 woman who is 35 weeks pregnant is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. She states that there is fluid leaking from her vagina but she is not sure if it is urine. What should the nurse do to make the determination?

Questions 60

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

high risk labor and delivery nclex questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 29-year-old gravida 1, para 0 woman who is 35 weeks pregnant is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. She states that there is fluid leaking from her vagina but she is not sure if it is urine. What should the nurse do to make the determination?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A nitrazine test is the most conclusive test. The rationale for this is as follows: 1. Nitrazine test detects the pH level of the fluid. Amniotic fluid is alkaline while urine is acidic. 2. Amniotic fluid will turn the nitrazine paper blue, indicating a pH level greater than 6.5, while urine will not change the color significantly. 3. This test is reliable and can help differentiate between amniotic fluid and urine leakage. Summary of other choices: B: Although nitrazine paper changes color due to the acidic nature of amniotic fluid, it is not a comprehensive test on its own. C: Ferning test is not commonly used in practice and may not be as reliable as the nitrazine test. D: Noting if fluid is leaking from the perineal area does not provide a conclusive determination of whether it is amniotic fluid or urine.

Question 2 of 5

A primigravida has just been examined. The examination revealed engagement of the fetal head. The nurse is aware that this means which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because engagement of the fetal head means the widest part of the head (biparietal diameter) is at the level of the ischial spines, indicating the head has descended into the pelvis. Choice B is incorrect as -2 station refers to the presenting part being 2 cm above the ischial spines, not at the level. Choice C is incorrect because engagement does not necessarily mean the head is well flexed. Choice D is incorrect as the ability of the head to pass under the pubic arch is not determined solely by engagement.

Question 3 of 5

A 40-year-old G2, P1 woman is admitted to the labor and delivery unit with contractions 6 minutes apart. She is 36 weeks pregnant, has a history of placenta previa, and is currently experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. What should the nurse be prepared to do?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Initiate external fetal monitoring. In this scenario, the patient is at 36 weeks of gestation with a history of placenta previa and moderate vaginal bleeding, indicating a high-risk situation. External fetal monitoring allows for continuous assessment of the fetal heart rate and uterine contractions, which is crucial for identifying signs of fetal distress or complications related to placenta previa. This monitoring can help guide timely interventions and decision-making to ensure the safety of the mother and baby. Performing a vaginal examination (A) may increase the risk of bleeding in cases of placenta previa. Artificial rupture of membranes (B) can also lead to increased bleeding and should be avoided in this situation. Encouraging ambulation (D) is not recommended due to the risk of exacerbating bleeding and potential complications.

Question 4 of 5

A sterile vaginal examination completed on a patient revealed the presenting part to be the mentum. What is this presentation known as?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Face presentation. In this presentation, the mentum (chin) is the presenting part. The chin is the prominent part of the face, making it a face presentation. In a face presentation, the fetus is in a position where the head is extended rather than flexed. This can lead to complications during delivery. Summary: B: Breech presentation - In breech presentation, the baby's buttocks or feet are the presenting part. C: Vertex presentation - In vertex presentation, the baby's head is the presenting part with the chin tucked towards the chest. D: Shoulder presentation - In shoulder presentation, the baby is positioned transversely in the uterus with one or both shoulders presenting first.

Question 5 of 5

A woman who is 39 weeks pregnant presents to the labor and delivery unit stating that she thinks she is in labor. Her contractions are irregular at 7 to 10 minutes apart. Which sign is definitive for true labor?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cervical dilation is occurring. During true labor, the cervix begins to dilate and efface in preparation for childbirth. This process is a definitive sign of active labor. In contrast, the other choices are not definitive signs of true labor. Choice A is incorrect because pain decreasing when walking is not a specific indicator of true labor. Choice C, the fetal membranes rupturing, indicates the beginning of labor but is not the definitive sign. Choice D, the fetal head at –1 station, signifies the descent of the baby into the pelvis but does not confirm active labor.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions