ATI RN
Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 28-year-old woman with infertility and anovulation is treated with clomiphene citrate. The mechanism of action of clomiphene is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Competitive antagonist of estrogen receptor. Clomiphene citrate is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that acts as a competitive antagonist at the estrogen receptor in the hypothalamus. By blocking estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus, clomiphene increases the release of GnRH, which in turn stimulates the release of FSH and LH, leading to ovulation in women with infertility and anovulation. Option B) Selective estrogen receptor modulator SERMs with tissue-selective actions is incorrect because while clomiphene is a SERM, it does not have tissue-selective actions. Its primary mechanism of action is through competitive antagonism at the estrogen receptor. Option C) Clomiphene decreases gonadotropin secretion is incorrect as clomiphene actually increases gonadotropin secretion by blocking estrogen's negative feedback on the hypothalamus. Option D) Is used for the treatment of breast cancer in women is incorrect as clomiphene is primarily used for ovulation induction in women with infertility and anovulation, not for breast cancer treatment. Understanding the mechanism of action of clomiphene is crucial for healthcare professionals in the field of pharmacology, especially those working with female reproductive health and infertility. By grasping how clomiphene functions as an estrogen receptor antagonist, healthcare providers can effectively counsel patients on the medication's use and potential side effects while optimizing treatment outcomes.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following drugs is potentially dangerous in a single-drug overdose?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology, it is crucial for students to understand the potential risks associated with different drug classes, especially in terms of overdose scenarios. In this case, the correct answer is D) Amoxapine, as it belongs to the class of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). TCAs are known for their narrow therapeutic index, meaning that the difference between a therapeutic dose and a toxic dose is small. Therefore, in a single-drug overdose situation, TCAs like Amoxapine can lead to severe toxicity, including life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias, seizures, and central nervous system depression. On the other hand, options A, B, and C (Moclobemide, Paroxetine, Sertraline) are all selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), which have a wider therapeutic index compared to TCAs. While SSRIs can still cause significant adverse effects in overdose situations, they are generally considered to be safer compared to TCAs due to their reduced risk of severe cardiovascular toxicity. Educationally, understanding the differences in toxicity profiles among drug classes is essential for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions in clinical practice, particularly in emergency situations such as drug overdoses. This knowledge helps in identifying high-risk medications and implementing appropriate interventions to manage potential overdose cases effectively.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is a direct serotonin agonist?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is C) Sumatriptan. Sumatriptan is a direct serotonin agonist that specifically targets serotonin receptors in the brain to alleviate symptoms of migraines. A) Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used to treat depression and anxiety by increasing serotonin levels in the brain through reuptake inhibition, not direct agonism. B) Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that works by blocking the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, rather than directly acting as a serotonin agonist. D) Ondansetron is a serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting, which is the opposite mechanism of a serotonin agonist. Educationally, understanding the classification of CNS drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions about drug therapy for various neurological conditions. Knowing the specific mechanisms of action of different drugs helps in selecting the most appropriate treatment options for patients. In this case, recognizing the direct serotonin agonist among the options is essential for managing migraines effectively.
Question 4 of 5
Regarding adverse effects of propofol, which statement is true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the adverse effects of drugs is crucial for safe and effective patient care. In the context of propofol, the correct statement is C) Severe acidosis can occur with its use in pediatric rapid respiratory infections. This is because propofol contains soybean oil and egg lecithin which can lead to metabolic acidosis in patients with impaired fatty acid metabolism, such as in pediatric patients with rapid respiratory infections. Option A is incorrect because post-op vomiting is not a common adverse effect associated with propofol. Option B is incorrect as propofol is more likely to cause hypotension rather than hypertension due to its vasodilatory effects. Option D is incorrect as propofol is not known to be positively inotropic. Educationally, it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the specific adverse effects of drugs to anticipate and manage them effectively. Understanding the mechanisms behind these adverse effects, like the metabolic acidosis seen with propofol in certain patient populations, can help in making informed clinical decisions and improving patient outcomes.
Question 5 of 5
The skeletal muscle relaxant with the longest duration of action is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the duration of action of medications is crucial for safe and effective patient care. In this case, the correct answer is C) Pancuronium. Pancuronium is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that has a long duration of action due to its slower metabolism and elimination compared to other options. Suxamethonium (A) is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker with a rapid onset but a short duration of action, making it incorrect for the question. Mivacurium (B) is also a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker, but it has a shorter duration of action compared to Pancuronium. Rocuronium (D) is an intermediate-acting neuromuscular blocker, shorter in duration compared to Pancuronium. Educationally, understanding the pharmacokinetics of muscle relaxants helps healthcare providers make informed decisions when selecting medications for patients undergoing procedures requiring muscle relaxation. Knowing the duration of action can help prevent complications such as prolonged paralysis or inadequate muscle relaxation during surgery. This knowledge is essential for healthcare professionals working in anesthesia, critical care, and surgery settings.