ATI RN
Quizlet ATI Pharmacology Final Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 28-year-old woman is admitted with suspected urinary sepsis (temperature 40.2°C, BP 84/50, pulse 128). She had a massive haemorrhage following the birth of her only child when she was aged 24; since then she has had no periods. Her partner says that she has been progressively listless and depressed for at least two years. There is left loin tenderness and she has no pubic or axillary hair. Which of the following would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sepsis (fever, hypotension) with post-partum hemorrhage history, amenorrhea, fatigue, and hair loss suggest Sheehan's syndrome (pituitary necrosis) causing adrenal insufficiency. Oral amoxicillin is inadequate for septic shock. IV hydrocortisone treats acute adrenal crisis, stabilizing BP and stress response, most appropriate here alongside antibiotics. Pelvic exam doesn't address urgency. Gonadotrophins or triiodothyronine target secondary issues, not immediate crisis. Hydrocortisone's rapid action is life-saving, addressing cortisol deficiency in this emergency.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is providing medication education to a client with hypertension. The nurse teaches the client that the physician ordered a diuretic to decrease the amount of fluid in the client's body. Which statement best describes the nurse's instruction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Explaining a diuretic's role in reducing fluid for hypertension is appropriate education, informing the client about its purpose in a clear, relevant way. Mechanism (e.g., sodium excretion) wasn't detailed-purpose was. Prototype drugs weren't specified, and consequences of non-use weren't covered. Appropriate education fits, enhancing adherence by linking the drug to the condition, a practical teaching goal.
Question 3 of 5
Drug X has a median lethal dose of 30 mg and a median effective dose of 10. Drug Y has a therapeutic index of 4, while drug Z has a therapeutic index of 3. Which statement is accurate based on this information?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Therapeutic index (TI) = lethal dose (LD50) / effective dose (ED50). Drug X: 30/10 = 3. Drug Y: TI = 4. Drug Z: TI = 3. Higher TI means safer-Drug Y (4) tops X and Z (3), balancing efficacy and toxicity best. X and Y aren't both safer-X matches Z. X's TI isn't 20. Z isn't safest. Y's TI makes it safest.
Question 4 of 5
The mother of a 7-year-old child says to the nurse, 'My child is distractible in school, cannot complete assignments on time, and interrupts other children while they are speaking. What do you think?' What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 5 of 5
A 60-year-old man with agitation is hospitalized on the medicine service for hyponatremia. He is being treated with intravenous fluids and haloperidol. He develops new onset of tremors and difficulty with ambulation and gait disturbance. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's new tremors, ambulation issues, and gait disturbance during hospitalization for hyponatremia suggest a drug-related cause. Haloperidol, an antipsychotic, is known for extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)-tremors, rigidity, and gait problems-making iatrogenic the correct answer. Infection lacks supporting fever or systemic signs. Neoplastic process is unlikely without prior hints. Viral encephalitis would involve fever, altered mentation beyond agitation, and CSF findings, none present. Haloperidol's dopamine D2 blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway induces EPS, especially in older patients, aligning with the timeline and symptoms. This iatrogenic effect is a common adverse reaction, distinguishing it from unrelated pathologies in this context.