A 28-year-old woman complains of fatigue that increases throughout the day. At the end of her workday, she says her eyes feel “heavy” and “droopy,” although she does not feel particularly tired. Pyridostigmine is prescribed to treat her myasthenia gravis. Which of the following is a potential side effect of this therapy?

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Pharmacology CNS Drugs Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 28-year-old woman complains of fatigue that increases throughout the day. At the end of her workday, she says her eyes feel “heavy” and “droopy,” although she does not feel particularly tired. Pyridostigmine is prescribed to treat her myasthenia gravis. Which of the following is a potential side effect of this therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Diaphoresis. Pyridostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to treat myasthenia gravis by increasing the levels of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, improving muscle strength. Diaphoresis, or excessive sweating, is a common side effect of cholinergic stimulation, which is the mechanism of action of pyridostigmine. A) Constipation is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. In fact, cholinesterase inhibitors like pyridostigmine can actually cause increased gastrointestinal motility, leading to diarrhea rather than constipation. C) Mydriasis, or pupil dilation, is not typically associated with pyridostigmine use. In fact, cholinergic stimulation would lead to miosis, or pupil constriction, rather than mydriasis. D) Tachycardia, or increased heart rate, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Cholinergic stimulation usually leads to bradycardia, or decreased heart rate, as acetylcholine acts on muscarinic receptors in the heart to decrease heart rate. Educational Context: Understanding the side effects of medications is crucial in pharmacology to ensure safe and effective patient care. By knowing the potential side effects of drugs like pyridostigmine, healthcare professionals can monitor patients for adverse reactions and provide appropriate management. This case highlights the importance of recognizing cholinergic side effects when using cholinesterase inhibitors like pyridostigmine.

Question 2 of 5

A 54-year-old man with seizure disorder and chronic neuropathic pain presents to his primary care physician for follow-up. Review of his laboratory studies indicates elevated liver function tests to four times the normal levels. Which of the following agents would be preferred to manage this patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the preferred agent to manage the patient with elevated liver function tests due to seizure disorder and chronic neuropathic pain would be option D) Pregabalin. Pregabalin is a medication used to treat neuropathic pain and seizures, and it is primarily excreted unchanged by the kidneys, making it a safer choice for patients with liver impairment as it does not require hepatic metabolism for elimination. Option A) Carbamazepine, option B) Phenobarbital, and option C) Phenytoin are all antiepileptic drugs that are metabolized in the liver. In the case of a patient with elevated liver function tests, using these medications can further burden the already compromised liver function and potentially worsen the condition. Carbamazepine, Phenobarbital, and Phenytoin are known to induce liver enzymes and can lead to hepatotoxicity in patients with liver dysfunction. Educationally, understanding the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of CNS drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals when managing patients with comorbidities such as liver impairment. It is essential to consider the organ functions of patients when selecting medications to minimize adverse effects and ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes. Pregabalin, with its renal excretion pathway, provides a safer alternative in this clinical scenario, highlighting the importance of individualized pharmacotherapy based on patient-specific factors.

Question 3 of 5

A 21-year-old male college student complains of difficulty falling asleep at night. He asks if there is anything “mild” he can take to help him get to sleep. Which of the following hypnotics mimics an endogenous hormone?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is D) Ramelteon. Ramelteon is the only option that mimics an endogenous hormone, specifically melatonin, which regulates the sleep-wake cycle. Ramelteon acts on melatonin receptors in the brain to help regulate sleep patterns without causing the same risks of dependency or tolerance seen with traditional hypnotics. A) Diazepam and B) Lorazepam are benzodiazepines that act on GABA receptors to induce sedation and are not hormones. These drugs are not recommended for long-term use due to the risk of dependence and potential for cognitive impairment. C) Phenobarbital is a barbiturate with sedative properties but does not mimic an endogenous hormone like melatonin. Barbiturates are associated with a high risk of overdose and are not commonly used for sleep induction due to their safety profile. Educationally, understanding the mechanisms of action of different hypnotic drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions when treating sleep disorders. Knowing the advantages of melatonin receptor agonists like ramelteon over traditional sedatives can help in selecting the most appropriate treatment for patients with insomnia.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following statements is correct about the normal functioning of the nicotinic receptors in a 19-year-old man college student athlete from the college baseball team?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 5 of 5

A 56-year-old man who is hospitalized for viral encephalitis develops pill-rolling tremors of the hands and cogwheel rigidity. He is thought to have parkinsonian symptoms that developed because of an underlying secondary cause. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of this condition?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Viral encephalitis. The patient in question developed parkinsonian symptoms as a result of the viral encephalitis he is hospitalized for. Viral encephalitis can lead to damage in the basal ganglia and substantia nigra, resulting in motor symptoms resembling Parkinson's disease. This is known as post-encephalitic parkinsonism. Option A) Carotid arterial atherosclerosis is not a likely cause of parkinsonian symptoms. Atherosclerosis primarily affects blood flow to the brain and is not associated with the development of parkinsonism. Option B) Large brain aneurysm would typically present with symptoms related to increased intracranial pressure or focal neurological deficits, not parkinsonian symptoms. Option D) Use of cocaine can lead to acute movement disorders like tremors and dyskinesias, but in this scenario, the patient's symptoms are more likely related to the viral encephalitis he is hospitalized for. Understanding the link between viral encephalitis and parkinsonian symptoms is crucial for healthcare providers to properly diagnose and manage patients presenting with such manifestations. It highlights the importance of considering secondary causes of parkinsonism in clinical practice, especially in the setting of encephalitis or other neurological conditions.

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