ATI RN
Health Assessment and Physical Examination Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 28-year-old married clothing sales clerk comes to your clinic for her annual examination. She requests a refill on her birth control pills. Her only complaint is painless bleeding after intercourse. She denies any other symptoms. Her past medical history consists of two spontaneous vaginal deliveries. Her past six Pap smears have all been normal. She is married and has two children. Her mother is in good health and her father has high blood pressure. On examination you see a young woman appearing healthy and relaxed. Her vital signs are unremarkable and her head, eyes, ears, throat, neck, cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. Visualization of the perineum shows no lesions or masses. Speculum examination shows a red mass at the os. On taking a Pap smear the mass bleeds easily. Bimanual examination shows no cervical motion tenderness and both ovaries are palpated and nontender. What is the most likely diagnosis for the abnormality of her cervix?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Given the patient's history and presentation, the most likely diagnosis for the abnormality seen on examination is a cervical polyp. Cervical polyps are benign growths that arise from the mucosal surface of the cervix. They are typically red or purple in color and can bleed easily, especially when touched, as in this case with the Pap smear causing bleeding. Cervical polyps are usually asymptomatic but can present with painless bleeding, particularly after intercourse. In this patient, the visualization of a red mass at the os during speculum examination and the finding of bleeding with manipulation support the diagnosis of a cervical polyp. Additionally, the absence of other significant findings on examination and the patient's overall healthy appearance further support this benign diagnosis. Further evaluation with possible removal of the polyp may be warranted for confirmation and to alleviate the bleeding symptoms.
Question 2 of 9
It started a few hours ago, and she has noted nausea with sensitivity to light; she has had headaches like this in the past, usually less than one per week, but not as severe. She does not know of any inciting factors. There has been no change in the frequency of her headaches. She usually takes an over- the-counter analgesic, and this results in resolution of the headache. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis of the type of headache?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The description of the headache as starting a few hours ago, associated with nausea, sensitivity to light, and being severe in intensity suggests a migraine headache. Migraine headaches are often accompanied by these symptoms, known as migraine features. The fact that the patient experiences headaches like this less than once a week and typically uses over-the-counter analgesics to relieve them is also suggestive of migraines. Tension headaches typically present as a more mild to moderate, band-like pressure around the head, without the associated symptoms of nausea and sensitivity to light. Cluster headaches are characterized by excruciating pain around one eye, often accompanied by other symptoms like redness or tearing in the eye. Analgesic rebound headaches occur due to overuse of pain medications and typically present as daily headaches that improve with the same medication that caused them in the first place.
Question 3 of 9
You are excited about a positive test finding you have just noticed on physical examination of your patient. You go on to do more examination, laboratory work, and diagnostic tests, only to find that there is no sign of the disease you thought would correlate with the finding. This same experience happens several times. What should you conclude?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The repeated scenario of finding a positive test result that does not correlate with the suspected disease indicates a lack of specificity for the test in question. In such cases, it is important to use the test when there is a higher suspicion for a specific condition that is known to correlate with the finding. By using the test selectively in situations where it is more likely to provide accurate information, its utility can be maximized and unnecessary further workup can be avoided. This approach allows for a more targeted and efficient use of resources in the diagnostic process.
Question 4 of 9
A 42-year-old florist comes to your office, complaining of chronic constipation for the last 6 months. She has had no nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea and no abdominal pain or cramping. She denies any recent illnesses or injuries. She denies any changes to her diet or exercise program. She is on no new medications. During the review of systems you note that she has felt fatigued, had some weight gain, has irregular periods, and has cold intolerance. Her past medical history is significant for one vaginal delivery and two cesarean sections. She is married, has three children, and owns a flower shop. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother has type 2 diabetes and her father has coronary artery disease. There is no family history of cancers. On examination she appears her stated age. Her vital signs are normal. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, and neck examinations are normal. Her cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are also unremarkable. Her rectal occult blood test is negative. Her deep tendon reflexes are delayed in response to a blow with the hammer, especially the Achilles tendons. What is the best choice for the cause of her constipation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The constellation of symptoms described in the scenario, including chronic constipation, fatigue, weight gain, irregular periods, cold intolerance, and delayed deep tendon reflexes, suggests hypothyroidism as the likely cause. Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, leading to a slowdown in bodily functions. Constipation is a common symptom of hypothyroidism due to the decreased motility of the bowel. The presence of cold intolerance, weight gain, and irregular periods further supports this diagnosis, as these are classic symptoms of hypothyroidism. The delayed deep tendon reflexes, especially in the Achilles tendons, are indicative of the myopathic changes that can occur in hypothyroidism. It is important to further investigate thyroid function through laboratory testing to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment. Other conditions such as large bowel obstruction, irritable bowel syndrome, and rectal cancer are less likely based
Question 5 of 9
He is concerned about his weight. Based on this information, what is appropriate counsel for the patient during the visit?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The appropriate counsel for the patient during the visit would be to give information about the reduction of fat, cholesterol, and calories because he is concerned about his weight. This option addresses the patient's concern and provides guidance on making healthier choices to manage weight. Referring the patient to a nutritionist because he is anorexic (Option A) is not appropriate based on the information provided. Reassuring the patient that he has a normal body weight (Option B) may not address his concerns about weight. Giving the patient information about reducing fat and cholesterol only because he is obese (Option D) does not cover all aspects of a healthy diet such as managing calorie intake.
Question 6 of 9
Mrs. Fletcher comes to your office with unilateral pain during chewing, which is chronic. She does not have facial tenderness or tenderness of the scalp. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her pain?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mrs. Fletcher's symptoms of unilateral pain during chewing, which is chronic, without facial tenderness or tenderness of the scalp are more suggestive of temporomandibular joint (TMJ) syndrome rather than other conditions listed. TMJ syndrome is characterized by pain and dysfunction of the jaw muscles and the joints that connect the jaw to the skull. The pain is often worsened by chewing or opening the mouth widely. In this case, the absence of facial tenderness or signs of temporal arteritis makes these conditions less likely. Trigeminal neuralgia typically presents with sudden, severe facial pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve. Tumor of the mandible would likely present with other symptoms such as swelling, bone destruction, or difficulty with mouth opening and chewing. Temporal arteritis usually presents with symptoms such as headache, scalp tenderness, and visual disturbances. Given Mrs. Fletcher's presentation,
Question 7 of 9
A 72-year-old teacher comes to a skilled nursing facility for rehabilitation after being in the hospital for 6 weeks. She was treated for sepsis and respiratory failure and had to be on the ventilator for 3 weeks. You are completing your initial assessment and are evaluating her skin condition. On her sacrum there is full-thickness skin loss that is 5 cm in diameter, with damage to the subcutaneous tissue. The underlying muscle is not affected. You diagnose this as a pressure ulcer. What is the stage of this ulcer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A stage 3 pressure ulcer involves full-thickness skin loss with damage and necrosis of the subcutaneous tissue, but the underlying muscle is not affected. In this case, the description of the full-thickness skin loss with involvement of the subcutaneous tissue but not the muscle corresponds to a stage 3 pressure ulcer. Stage 1 involves intact skin with non-blanchable redness, stage 2 involves partial-thickness skin loss with a shallow open ulcer, and stage 4 involves full-thickness tissue loss with the involvement of muscle, bone, or supporting structures.
Question 8 of 9
A high school soccer player "blew out his knee" when the opposing goalie's head and shoulder struck his flexed knee while the goalie was diving for the ball. All of the following structures were involved in some way in his injury, but which of the following is actually an extra-articular structure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Tendons are the correct answer as they are an extra-articular structure. Tendons are fibrous connective tissue that attach muscles to bones, providing stability and transmitting forces during movements. In the context of the scenario provided, the player's knee injury involved structures within the joint such as the synovium (A), joint capsule (B), and juxta-articular bone (C), but the tendons (D) are located outside of the joint itself.
Question 9 of 9
A 29-year-old married computer programmer comes to your clinic, complaining of "something strange" going on in his scrotum. Last month while he was doing his testicular self- examination he felt a lump in his left testis. He waited a month and felt the area again, but the lump was still there. He has had some aching in his left testis but denies any pain with urination or sexual intercourse. He denies any fever, malaise, or night sweats. His past medical history consists of groin surgery when he was a baby and a tonsillectomy as a teenager. He eats a healthy diet and works out at the gym five times a week. He denies any tobacco or illegal drugs and drinks alcohol occasionally. His parents are both healthy. On examination you see a muscular, healthy, young-appearing man with unremarkable vital signs. On visualization the penis is circumcised with no lesions; there is a scar in his right inguinal region. There is no lymphadenopathy. Palpation of his scrotum is unremarkable on the right but indicates a large mass on the left. Placing a finger through the inguinal ring on the right, you have the patient bear down. Nothing is felt. You attempt to place your finger through the left inguinal ring but cannot get above the mass. On rectal examination his prostate is unremarkable. What disorder of the testes is most likely the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis in this case is a scrotal hernia. The patient's history of a previous groin surgery as a baby is a key clue, as it increases the risk for developing a hernia. The lump in the left testis with aching, along with the inability to palpate above the mass through the left inguinal ring, suggests that the lump may be a hernia protruding through the inguinal canal into the scrotum. The presence of a scar in the right inguinal region also supports the likelihood of a hernia. The normal prostate on rectal examination rules out any involvement of the prostate in the presentation. Scrotal hernias may present as painless masses in the scrotum, often increasing in size with activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as straining or coughing. Surgical repair is often necessary to prevent complications such as incarceration or strangulation