A 28-year-old graduate student comes to your clinic for evaluation of pain "all over." With further questioning, she is able to relate that the pain is worse in the neck, shoulders, hands, low back, and knees. She denies swelling in her joints; she states that the pain is worse in the morning; there is no limitation in her range of motion. On physical examination, she has several points on the muscles of the neck, shoulders, and back that are tender to palpation; muscle strength and range of motion are normal. Which of the following is likely the cause of her pain?

Questions 27

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ATI RN Test Bank

Physical Examination and Health Assessment 9th Edition Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A 28-year-old graduate student comes to your clinic for evaluation of pain "all over." With further questioning, she is able to relate that the pain is worse in the neck, shoulders, hands, low back, and knees. She denies swelling in her joints; she states that the pain is worse in the morning; there is no limitation in her range of motion. On physical examination, she has several points on the muscles of the neck, shoulders, and back that are tender to palpation; muscle strength and range of motion are normal. Which of the following is likely the cause of her pain?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain syndrome characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain, fatigue, and multiple tender points on palpation, especially in the neck, shoulders, back, and hips. The patient's symptoms of widespread pain and tenderness at specific points on the muscles without arthritis, joint swelling, or limitation in range of motion are consistent with fibromyalgia. Fibromyalgia is often associated with poor sleep quality, morning stiffness, and fatigue, which the patient in the case provided experiences. Other conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, osteoarthritis, or polymyalgia rheumatica would typically present differently with specific joint involvement, swelling, and additional systemic symptoms, which are not seen in this patient.

Question 2 of 9

A 68-year-old retired farmer comes to your office for evaluation of a skin lesion. On the right temporal area of the forehead, you see a flattened papule the same color as his skin, covered by a dry scale that is round and feels hard. He has several more of these scattered on the forehead, arms, and legs. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Based on the description provided, the skin lesions are most consistent with seborrheic keratosis. Seborrheic keratoses are common non-cancerous (benign) growths of the skin that often appear as brown, black, or light tan growths with a waxy, stuck-on appearance. They can vary in color and may be round or oval, with a well-defined border. Seborrheic keratoses are typically asymptomatic and can be found on various parts of the body including the face, arms, and legs. The dry, hard scale covering the lesion is typical for seborrheic keratoses.

Question 3 of 9

On visual confrontation testing, a stroke patient is unable to see your fingers on his entire right side with either eye covered. Which of the following terms would describe this finding?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A right homonymous hemianopsia refers to a visual field defect in which the patient is unable to see objects in the right half of the visual field in both eyes. In the case described, the stroke patient is unable to see your fingers on his entire right side with either eye covered, which is consistent with a right homonymous hemianopsia. This type of visual field defect typically occurs as a result of damage to the optic tract or optic radiation on one side of the brain, which affects the processing of visual information from the opposite visual field. It is important to note that bitemporal hemianopsia, right temporal hemianopsia, and binasal hemianopsia involve different patterns of visual field loss and are not fitting descriptions for the presented scenario.

Question 4 of 9

An obese 55-year-old woman went through menarche at age 16 and menopause 2 years ago. She is concerned because an aunt had severe osteoporosis. Which of the following is a risk factor for osteoporosis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Family history of osteoporosis is a significant risk factor, as genetics play a key role in determining a person's risk for developing osteoporosis. Having a close relative, such as an aunt, with severe osteoporosis increases this woman's risk as there is a strong genetic component to the disease. Factors such as obesity (choice A), late menopause (choice B), and delayed menarche (choice D) do not directly increase the risk of osteoporosis, unlike having a familial history of the condition.

Question 5 of 9

You are performing a routine check-up on an 81-year-old retired cotton farmer in the vascular surgery clinic. You note that he has a history of chronic arterial insufficiency. Which of the following physical examination findings in the lower extremities would be expected with this disease?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Chronic arterial insufficiency results in poor blood flow to the lower extremities. This leads to inadequate oxygen and nutrient supply to the tissues, causing damage and changes in the skin. A common physical examination finding in chronic arterial insufficiency is thin, shiny, atrophic skin. The skin may appear pale, cool to the touch, and may have decreased hair growth. It is important to note that other findings such as diminished or absent pulses and reduced temperatures may also be present with chronic arterial insufficiency.

Question 6 of 9

The following information is best placed in which category? "The patient had a stent placed in the left anterior descending artery (LAD) in "

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The information provided - "The patient had a stent placed in the left anterior descending artery (LAD)" - is related to a medical procedure, specifically a surgical intervention involving the placement of a stent in a coronary artery. This information falls under the category of surgeries because it describes a surgical treatment to address a cardiovascular issue. It does not pertain to adult illnesses, obstetrics/gynecology, or psychiatric conditions, making option B the most appropriate category for this information.

Question 7 of 9

A 26-year-old violinist comes to your clinic, complaining of anxiety. He is a first chair violinist in the local symphony orchestra and has started having symptoms during performances, such as sweating, shaking, and hyperventilating. It has gotten so bad that he has thought about giving up his first chair status so he does not have to play the solo during one of the movements. He says that he never has these symptoms during rehearsals or when he is practicing. He denies having any of these symptoms at any other time. His past medical history is unremarkable. He denies any tobacco use, drug use, or alcohol abuse. His parents are both healthy. On examination you see a young man who appears worried. His vital signs and physical examination are unremarkable. What type of anxiety disorder best describes his situation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The young violinist is experiencing symptoms of anxiety specifically related to performing in front of others, which is characteristic of social phobia (also known as social anxiety disorder). The symptoms occur only during performances, indicating the anxiety is triggered by social situations where he is the center of attention. His ability to perform without symptoms during rehearsals or practice sessions further supports the diagnosis of social phobia, as the anxiety is specifically related to public performance. In contrast, panic disorder is characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks that are not situation-specific, and specific phobia involves an intense fear of a specific object or situation, neither of which fully match this patient's presentation. Generalized anxiety disorder involves excessive worry and anxiety about various aspects of life, which is not the main feature of this case.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following is true regarding breast self-examination?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The statement that a high proportion of breast masses are detected by breast self-examination is true. Studies have shown that only a small percentage of breast cancers are actually detected by women themselves through self-examination. In fact, most breast cancers are detected through clinical breast exams and mammograms. Therefore, while it is still important for women to be breast aware and report any changes they notice to their healthcare provider, the practice of routine breast self-examinations is no longer universally recommended. Instead, the focus has shifted towards regular clinical breast exams and mammograms based on individual risk factors.

Question 9 of 9

A 67-year-old lawyer comes to your clinic for an annual examination. He denies any history of eye trauma. He denies any visual changes. You inspect his eyes and find a triangular thickening of the bulbar conjunctiva across the outer surface of the cornea. He has a normal pupillary reaction to light and accommodation. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The described findings of a triangular thickening of the bulbar conjunctiva across the outer surface of the cornea are characteristic of a pterygium. A pterygium is a benign growth of conjunctival tissue that extends onto the cornea. It is often associated with chronic exposure to ultraviolet light and typically occurs on the nasal side of the eye. Pterygiums are usually asymptomatic but can cause irritation, redness, and foreign body sensation in some cases. Surgical removal may be considered if the pterygium causes significant symptoms or affects vision.

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