A 28-year-old female presents with a 4 × 5 cm purulent ulcer on her abdomen following a spider bite. A wound culture grows MRSA, so intravenous vancomycin is started. While receiving her first dose of vancomycin, her face, neck, and chest flushed red. This reaction can best be described as

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ATI Pharmacology Study Guide Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 28-year-old female presents with a 4 × 5 cm purulent ulcer on her abdomen following a spider bite. A wound culture grows MRSA, so intravenous vancomycin is started. While receiving her first dose of vancomycin, her face, neck, and chest flushed red. This reaction can best be described as

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Vancomycin's red man syndrome-flushing during infusion-is non-hypersensitivity mast cell degranulation . Rapid infusion triggers histamine release, not IgE-mediated allergy . Type II , III , and IV (E) involve immune mechanisms unrelated to this acute, rate-dependent reaction. Slowing infusion prevents it, distinguishing it from true hypersensitivity, aligning with vancomycin's pharmacology in MRSA treatment.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following is a first-line medication for generalized tonic-clonic seizures?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Topiramate, a broad-spectrum antiepileptic, treats generalized tonic-clonic seizures by blocking sodium channels, enhancing GABA, and inhibiting glutamate, making it a first-line option per guidelines. Ethosuximide targets absence seizures. Felbamate, vigabatrin, and ezogabine have narrower uses or toxicity risks (e.g., aplastic anemia, vision loss), limiting them to refractory cases. Topiramate's efficacy, tolerability, and broad action suit primary generalized seizures, distinguishing it as a standard choice.

Question 3 of 5

A client is prescribed an intranasal corticosteroid. What should the nurse include in client education about this drug?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Intranasal corticosteroids (e.g., fluticasone) can cause burning and nosebleeds due to mucosal drying . They're preventive, not symptom-driven (choice B is wrong), and dosing is fixed, not squeeze-dependent . Choice D educates on a common, manageable side effect, ensuring client awareness and compliance.

Question 4 of 5

A client calls the nurse help-line and says, 'My friend and I have been swimming and drinking beer all day and he took a couple of swigs of Robitussin DM (dextromethorphan) about 15 minutes ago. Now he is acting funny and seeing things.' What should the nurse consider when formulating a response?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Dextromethorphan with alcohol causes dizziness and hallucinations , guiding the nurse to advise medical help. Dialysis , opioid status , and addiction are incorrect. D informs the response, making it key.

Question 5 of 5

A client with hyperlipidemia is prescribed simvastatin (Zocor). Which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Simvastatin, a statin, lowers cholesterol by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase, most active at night when synthesis peaks. Evening dosing optimizes efficacy. Grapefruit juice increases levels, risking toxicity. Stopping if normal risks rebound. Breakfast misses the cycle. Evening aligns with simvastatin's pharmacodynamics, key in hyperlipidemia where timing boosts results, making A the key instruction.

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