ATI RN
Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 28-year-old Aboriginal woman attending a prenatal visit describes her nutritional intake over the past 24 hours to the nurse. It includes two slices of pizza, two cans of soda, and three cookies. The nurse must:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: discuss how the patient's food choices may affect her health and that of her baby. This is the most appropriate response because it addresses the potential impact of the patient's current diet on her health and the health of her baby during pregnancy. By discussing the implications of her food choices, the nurse can educate the patient on the importance of a balanced and nutritious diet for a healthy pregnancy. This approach promotes awareness and empowers the patient to make informed decisions for her and her baby's well-being. Incorrect choices: A: This option does not provide guidance or education on improving the patient's diet, which is crucial for a healthy pregnancy. B: Focusing on weight gain rather than nutritional content may not address the underlying issue of poor dietary choices. C: Assuming the patient's ability to cook or go grocery shopping may not address the immediate need for dietary education and guidance.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is most likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all choices (A, B, and C) can increase the risk of STDs. Alcohol use can impair judgment leading to risky sexual behavior. Certain sexual practices (such as unprotected sex or having multiple partners) can directly increase the risk of STD transmission. Oral contraception does not protect against STDs, so individuals relying solely on it may still be at risk. Therefore, all of the above factors can contribute to an increased risk of contracting STDs.
Question 3 of 9
A woman has noticed that her son, who has a new babysitter, has some blisters and scabs on his face and buttocks. On examination, the nurse notices moist, thin-roofed vesicles with a thin erythematous base and suspects:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: impetigo. The characteristics of moist, thin-roofed vesicles with a thin erythematous base are classic features of impetigo, a bacterial skin infection commonly seen in children. Impetigo is highly contagious and commonly affects the face and buttocks. The presence of blisters and scabs further supports the diagnosis of impetigo. Explanation of other choices: A: Eczema typically presents as dry, itchy patches of skin with redness and scaling. It does not usually manifest as vesicles or blisters. C: Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, presents as a painful rash with grouped vesicles on one side of the body along a nerve pathway. It is uncommon in children and usually affects older individuals. D: Diaper dermatitis is a common rash in infants due to prolonged skin exposure to urine and feces. It typically presents as redness, irritation, and possibly skin breakdown in the diaper
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following assessment findings is most consistent with clubbing of the fingernails?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clubbing of the fingernails is characterized by an increased angle between the nail base and the nail plate (usually 180 degrees or greater) and a spongy texture at the nail base. This is due to underlying tissue changes associated with conditions like lung disease. Choice D is correct as it accurately describes the characteristic findings of clubbing. Choices A, B, and C do not align with clubbing features. Choice A describes tenderness and firmness, not sponginess and increased angle. Choice B mentions a convex profile and ridges, which are not specific to clubbing. Choice C includes an angle of 150 degrees, which is less than the typical angle seen in clubbing.
Question 5 of 9
What should the nurse do when a client is experiencing hyperglycemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, administer insulin, because hyperglycemia indicates high blood sugar levels which can be effectively lowered by administering insulin. Insulin helps to move glucose from the blood into cells for energy production. Administering fluids (B) can be helpful for dehydration, but it does not directly address the high blood sugar levels. Encouraging activity (C) may help lower blood sugar levels over time, but in the immediate situation, administering insulin is more effective. Encouraging deep breathing (D) does not directly address hyperglycemia and would not be the appropriate first step in managing this condition.
Question 6 of 9
During assessment, the nurse notices that the skin of a patient of Asian descent is yellowish brown in colour. The skin on the hard and soft palate is, however, pink in colour. From this finding, the nurse could probably rule out:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jaundice. Yellowish brown skin coloration along with pink coloration of the hard and soft palate is indicative of jaundice, a condition characterized by elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood. Bilirubin causes a yellowish discoloration of the skin but does not affect the color of the mucous membranes like the hard and soft palate. Pallor (A) refers to paleness of the skin due to decreased blood flow or anemia, not relevant in this case. Cyanosis (C) is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to low oxygen levels in the blood, which is not consistent with the presented findings. Iron deficiency (D) may lead to pallor, but it does not cause yellowish brown skin coloration like jaundice.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD). The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. In CKD, the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete potassium, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This can result in dangerous cardiac complications. Hyperkalemia is a common and critical complication in CKD patients. B: Hypokalemia is unlikely in CKD as the kidneys typically retain potassium. C: Hyperglycemia is more commonly associated with diabetes rather than CKD. D: Hypercalcemia is not a common complication of CKD; in fact, CKD often leads to lower calcium levels due to impaired activation of vitamin D.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient with a history of diabetes and hypertension. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chronic kidney disease (CKD). Patients with diabetes and hypertension are at increased risk for developing CKD due to the damaging effects of high blood sugar and elevated blood pressure on the kidneys. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of kidney dysfunction such as proteinuria, elevated creatinine levels, and decreased glomerular filtration rate. B: Chronic pain is not directly related to the patient's history of diabetes and hypertension. While the patient may experience pain as a result of complications from these conditions, it is not the primary complication to monitor for in this case. C: Hypotension, or low blood pressure, is not a common complication associated with diabetes and hypertension. These conditions typically lead to high blood pressure rather than low blood pressure. D: Sepsis is a serious infection that can occur in any patient, but it is not a direct complication specifically related to diabetes and hypertension. Monitoring for sepsis would be important in a broader context but is not
Question 9 of 9
A patient has a normal pupillary light reflex. The nurse recognizes this to indicate that:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a normal pupillary light reflex involves the constriction of both pupils in response to bright light. This reflex is controlled by the autonomic nervous system, specifically the parasympathetic nervous system. When light is detected by the retina, signals are sent to the brain which then triggers the constriction of both pupils to reduce the amount of light entering the eye. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the pupillary light reflex. Vision convergence, light reflection, and focusing the image at the center of the pupil are not directly related to the pupillary light reflex.