ATI RN
hesi health assessment test bank 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 28-year-old Aboriginal woman attending a prenatal visit describes her nutritional intake over the past 24 hours to the nurse. It includes two slices of pizza, two cans of soda, and three cookies. The nurse must:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: discuss how the patient's food choices may affect her health and that of her baby. This is the most appropriate response because it addresses the potential impact of the patient's current diet on her health and the health of her baby during pregnancy. By discussing the implications of her food choices, the nurse can educate the patient on the importance of a balanced and nutritious diet for a healthy pregnancy. This approach promotes awareness and empowers the patient to make informed decisions for her and her baby's well-being. Incorrect choices: A: This option does not provide guidance or education on improving the patient's diet, which is crucial for a healthy pregnancy. B: Focusing on weight gain rather than nutritional content may not address the underlying issue of poor dietary choices. C: Assuming the patient's ability to cook or go grocery shopping may not address the immediate need for dietary education and guidance.
Question 2 of 9
A female patient does not speak English well, and the nurse needs to choose an interpreter. Which of the following would be the most appropriate choice?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A trained interpreter. Choosing a trained interpreter ensures accurate communication and confidentiality. Professional interpreters have the necessary language skills and cultural competence to facilitate effective communication between the healthcare provider and the patient. Using a family member (choices B and C) may compromise confidentiality and accuracy due to potential bias or lack of professional training. Similarly, selecting a volunteer university student (choice D) may result in misinterpretation or breach of privacy as they may not have the same level of expertise as a trained interpreter. Ultimately, the most appropriate choice is a trained interpreter to ensure clear and accurate communication while respecting the patient's privacy and dignity.
Question 3 of 9
What instructions should the nurse give to a client who will undergo mammography?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Do not use underarm deodorant. This instruction is important because deodorant can interfere with the imaging results by causing artifacts on the mammogram images. Using deodorant can lead to false positives or false negatives, affecting the accuracy of the test results. Choice A is incorrect because using underarm deodorant can negatively impact the mammogram results. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need for the client to fast before a mammogram. Choice D is also incorrect as having a friend drive you home is not a necessary instruction for a mammography appointment.
Question 4 of 9
What is the nurse's first priority when caring for a client with severe trauma?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer pain relief. The nurse's first priority is to address pain and ensure the client's comfort and well-being. Pain relief helps reduce distress, improve communication, and prevent complications. Monitoring blood pressure (B) and providing hydration (C) are important but not the immediate priority in severe trauma. Administering a blood transfusion (D) may be necessary but is not the first priority compared to addressing pain and stabilizing the client.
Question 5 of 9
Which serotonin antagonist can be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ondansetron (Zofran). Ondansetron is a selective serotonin receptor antagonist that effectively targets the serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone to relieve nausea and vomiting. It is commonly used in chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. A: Metoclopramide is a dopamine receptor antagonist and primarily used for gastrointestinal motility disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. C: Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine with sedative properties, primarily used for anxiety and itching, not specifically for nausea relief. D: Prochlorperazine is a dopamine receptor antagonist primarily used for treating psychotic disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. In summary, ondansetron is the correct choice as it targets serotonin receptors specifically for relieving nausea and vomiting, whereas the other options focus on different mechanisms of action.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who is post-operative following abdominal surgery. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Atelectasis and pneumonia. Following abdominal surgery, patients are at risk for atelectasis (lung collapse) due to shallow breathing and pneumonia due to impaired lung function. A nurse should monitor for signs such as decreased oxygen saturation, increased respiratory rate, and crackles on auscultation. Wound infection (A) is a common post-operative complication but not specific to abdominal surgery. Hyperglycemia (B) may occur due to stress response but is not directly related to abdominal surgery. Dehydration (C) is a concern post-operatively, but respiratory complications like atelectasis and pneumonia are higher priority due to potential life-threatening consequences.
Question 7 of 9
What is the first step in the management of a client with acute renal failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first step in managing a client with acute renal failure is to administer IV fluids (Choice A). This is crucial to ensure adequate hydration and maintain renal perfusion. By administering IV fluids, you can help improve kidney function and prevent further damage. Monitoring urine output (Choice B) is important but comes after addressing the fluid balance with IV fluids. Performing a CT scan (Choice C) is not typically the initial step in managing acute renal failure as it does not directly impact the patient's immediate condition. Administering diuretics (Choice D) can worsen the condition by further reducing kidney function, so it is not the recommended first step.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is most likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all choices (A, B, and C) can increase the risk of STDs. Alcohol use can impair judgment leading to risky sexual behavior. Certain sexual practices (such as unprotected sex or having multiple partners) can directly increase the risk of STD transmission. Oral contraception does not protect against STDs, so individuals relying solely on it may still be at risk. Therefore, all of the above factors can contribute to an increased risk of contracting STDs.
Question 9 of 9
A patient is brought by ambulance to the emergency department with multiple injuries received in an automobile accident. He is alert and cooperative, but his injuries are quite severe. How should the nurse proceed with the data collection?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a patient with severe injuries is brought to the emergency department, the nurse should prioritize performing a physical examination and initiating lifesaving measures while asking history questions simultaneously. This approach allows for immediate assessment and intervention to address any life-threatening conditions. Gathering history information while performing the examination ensures that critical details are not missed and helps in making timely decisions. Choosing option A could delay lifesaving interventions, while option C is not a priority during the initial assessment of a critically injured patient. Option D is incorrect as it prioritizes lifesaving measures over obtaining important history information during the initial assessment.