A 28 y.o man is diagnosed with acute epididymitis. Which of the ff. symptoms supports this diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Severe tenderness and swelling in the scrotum. Epididymitis is characterized by inflammation of the epididymis, causing symptoms such as severe tenderness and swelling in the scrotum. Choice A is incorrect as burning and pain on urination are more indicative of a urinary tract infection. Choice C, foul-smelling ejaculate and severe scrotal swelling, is not commonly associated with epididymitis. Choice D, foul-smelling urine and pain on urination, may indicate a urinary tract infection but are not specific to epididymitis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Apply immobilization device after examination by physician Rationale: 1. Immobilization helps reduce pain and prevent further injury. 2. Physician examination ensures proper diagnosis and treatment plan. 3. Immobilization device may include chest binders or splints for support. 4. It is crucial to follow medical advice to prevent complications. Summary: B: Discouraging deep breaths can lead to respiratory complications. C: Advising against analgesics can increase pain and hinder recovery. D: Increased fluid intake is important but not directly related to rib fracture care.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Otorrhea. Otorrhea refers to the discharge of fluid from the ear, indicating an abnormal finding of ear drainage. This term specifically describes the symptom of ear drainage, making it the most appropriate choice for documenting this finding. Otalgia (choice B) refers to ear pain, ototoxic (choice C) refers to substances that are harmful to the ear, and tinnitus (choice D) refers to ringing in the ears, none of which accurately describe ear drainage. Therefore, the correct choice is A as it specifically addresses the symptom of ear drainage.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vision changes. Tamoxifen can cause serious ocular side effects like retinopathy and corneal changes. These adverse reactions can lead to vision impairment or loss, which is crucial to report immediately to prevent permanent damage. Headache (B), hearing loss (C), and anorexia (D) are not typically associated with tamoxifen use and do not pose immediate threats to the client's health compared to vision changes. It is important for the nurse to prioritize educating the client on recognizing and reporting vision changes promptly to ensure timely intervention and prevent irreversible consequences.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV infection is a well-known risk factor for cervical cancer as certain strains of HPV can lead to cellular changes in the cervix that may progress to cancer. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a known risk factor: HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that is strongly linked to the development of cervical cancer. 2. Age of infection: The client's history of acquiring HPV at age 32 is significant as long-standing HPV infection increases the risk of cervical cancer. 3. Other choices are not directly linked: Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. Age of sexual activity onset, spontaneous abortion, and eclampsia are not established risk factors for cervical cancer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: potassium chloride. In Addisonian crisis, the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol and aldosterone. Potassium levels are typically elevated in Addisonian crisis due to decreased aldosterone. Administering potassium chloride can further increase potassium levels, leading to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Hydrocortisone (B) is essential to replace cortisol, normal saline solution (C) helps with volume resuscitation, and fludrocortisone (D) replaces aldosterone. Administering potassium chloride would exacerbate the hyperkalemia in Addisonian crisis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obesity. Obesity is a well-established risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes mellitus due to the increased resistance of body cells to insulin. This leads to elevated blood sugar levels. Hypotension (A) is low blood pressure and is not typically associated with type 2 diabetes. Kidney dysfunction (C) is a complication of diabetes but not a direct correlation. Sex (D) does not have a direct link to the development of type 2 diabetes. Therefore, the most likely correlation is with obesity due to its impact on insulin resistance.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: - The correct answer is A, "Have you been exposed recently to anyone with an infection?" because it helps assess potential sources of infection causing the low-grade fever and other symptoms. - Choice B is irrelevant as the client's current sore throat is not the main concern. - Choice C and D do not address the potential infectious etiology of the symptoms. - Overall, assessing recent exposure to infections is crucial in identifying possible sources of the client's symptoms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reassure the patient. The first priority in any accident scenario is to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. By checking if the patient is conscious, the nurse can assess their immediate condition and provide reassurance to alleviate any distress or anxiety. This step establishes communication and trust, allowing for further assessment and appropriate actions to be taken. Calling relatives (B) may be important but not the immediate first step. Bringing the patient immediately to the hospital (C) is premature without assessing the patient first. Calling a doctor (D) can be done after assessing the patient's condition.