After a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy had a generalized seizure, she feels tired and falls asleep. This is:

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MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024 Questions

Question 1 of 5

After a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy had a generalized seizure, she feels tired and falls asleep. This is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: normal and termed the postictal period. The postictal period is a common phase following a seizure where the individual may experience fatigue, confusion, or sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure event and does not necessarily indicate a serious issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is not an ominous sign but rather a typical postictal symptom. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided that links the symptoms to an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the absence of focal neurologic deficits does not make the postictal period worrisome.

Question 2 of 5

A 70-year-old woman has difficulty with driving, and she has been frequently getting lost. Her husband said she has also been acting strange and seems to want to sleep a lot. He said the other night she kept saying she was seeing animals such as lions in her room. He says her memory is not too bad, but he is very concerned about her health. Physical examination reveals an alert woman with stable vital signs. Bradykinesia and limb rigidity are noted. These findings are consistent with:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms described in the scenario, such as visual hallucinations, fluctuations in cognition, and parkinsonism (bradykinesia and limb rigidity), are classic features of dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB). DLB is characterized by the presence of Lewy bodies in the brain, which are abnormal protein deposits. Alzheimer's disease (Choice A) typically presents with memory loss as a predominant symptom, which is not a major concern in this case. Vascular dementia (Choice B) is associated with a history of cerebrovascular disease and is not supported by the symptoms described. Frontotemporal dementia (Choice D) usually presents with changes in behavior and personality, rather than the symptoms described in the scenario.

Question 3 of 5

In which patients would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is the 55-year-old man with new onset headaches that worsen at night and reported mood swings according to his family. These symptoms, especially when combined with nighttime worsening and mood changes, could indicate a serious underlying disorder such as a brain tumor or increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as the unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea is suggestive of migraine headaches, which are usually not associated with serious underlying disorders. Choice C describes symptoms that are more indicative of tension-type headaches rather than a serious underlying disorder. Choice D presents symptoms that are more likely related to hormonal changes and migraines rather than a serious underlying disorder.

Question 4 of 5

A man with gout has developed large, hard nodules around his toes and elbows. The phase of gout he is in is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'chronic gout.' Chronic gout is characterized by the presence of tophi, which are large, hard nodules that can develop around joints like toes and elbows. These tophi are a sign of longstanding, untreated gout. Choice A, 'asymptomatic,' is incorrect as the presence of tophi indicates a symptomatic phase. Choice B, 'acute flare,' is incorrect as acute flares are characterized by sudden and severe pain, inflammation, and redness in the joints, not the development of tophi. Choice C, 'the intercritical period,' is also incorrect as this phase occurs between acute attacks and is typically asymptomatic, without the presence of tophi.

Question 5 of 5

Muscular dystrophy is a result of an abnormality of the muscle protein:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Muscular dystrophy is primarily caused by mutations in the gene that provides instructions for making the protein dystrophin. Dystrophin plays a crucial role in maintaining the structure of muscle fibers. Glycoprotein is a general term for proteins with sugar molecules attached, not specifically related to muscular dystrophy. Troponin is a protein involved in muscle contraction regulation, and actinomyosin is not a specific muscle protein but a complex formed during muscle contraction. Therefore, the correct answer is dystrophin.

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