ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 27-year-old man with HIV disease and hepatitis B is hospitalized for treatment of his hepatitis B. He has begun on intravenous treatment with interferon. After administration, he develops fever, chills, and myalgias. Physical examination reveals that the lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. What is the most likely explanation for this reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Expected adverse event. The patient's presentation of fever, chills, and myalgias following interferon administration is consistent with flu-like symptoms commonly associated with interferon therapy. This reaction is an expected adverse event due to the immunomodulatory effects of interferon. Option B) Drug toxicity is incorrect because the symptoms described are more indicative of an expected side effect rather than a toxic reaction to the medication. Options C) Underlying atypical pneumonia and D) Underlying bacterial pneumonia are unlikely as the physical examination reveals clear lungs bilaterally, making pneumonia less probable. Educationally, understanding the common side effects of medications is crucial for healthcare providers to differentiate between expected adverse events and potentially harmful reactions. This case highlights the importance of recognizing and managing side effects to ensure safe and effective patient care in individuals with complex medical conditions like HIV and hepatitis B.
Question 2 of 5
Modest improvement in the memory of patients with Alzheimer's disease may occur with drugs that increase transmission at which of the following receptors?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Alzheimer's disease features cholinergic neuron loss, impairing memory via reduced acetylcholine signaling in the hippocampus and cortex. Drugs like acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (e.g., donepezil) boost cholinergic transmission by preventing acetylcholine breakdown, modestly improving memory and cognition in early stages. Adrenergic enhancement (e.g., via norepinephrine) affects arousal, not memory directly. Dopaminergic drugs treat Parkinson's, not Alzheimer's cognitive deficits. GABAergic drugs (e.g., benzodiazepines) inhibit cognition, worsening memory. Serotonergic agents target mood, not memory. The cholinergic deficit is a hallmark of Alzheimer's pathology, and augmenting this system remains a primary therapeutic strategy, validated by clinical outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
The patient has a potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L. The nurse is administering glucose and insulin. The patient's wife says, 'He doesn't have diabetes, why is he getting insulin?' What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (potassium 5.9 mEq/L) is treated emergently with glucose and insulin, which drive potassium into cells, temporarily lowering serum levels . Insulin facilitates this shift by enhancing cellular uptake, paired with glucose to prevent hypoglycemia—accurate and clear for the wife. Choice B misstates that potassium is excreted via blood sugar; it's redistributed, not eliminated. Choice C compares insulin to Kayexalate (which binds potassium in the gut), but safety isn't the primary rationale. Choice D incorrectly suggests renal excretion, which isn't insulin's role (diuretics or dialysis do that). Choice A explains the mechanism correctly, addressing the wife's confusion with scientific clarity.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse has completed medication education with the patient who is receiving risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse evaluates that the education has been effective when the patient makes which statement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is option B) "I must have my blood work done while taking this medication." This statement reflects an understanding of the monitoring requirements for risperidone therapy. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that can potentially cause adverse effects such as changes in blood glucose, lipids, and weight. Regular monitoring of blood work is crucial to assess for these side effects and ensure the medication's safety and efficacy. Option A) is incorrect because nightmares are not a common side effect of risperidone that would require immediate reporting to the doctor. Option C) is incorrect because weight loss is not a common side effect of risperidone; in fact, weight gain is more commonly associated with this medication. Option D) is incorrect because a metallic taste in the mouth is not a typical side effect of risperidone. In an educational context, it is important for patients to understand the importance of medication monitoring and follow-up appointments while taking certain medications. This empowers patients to take an active role in their healthcare and ensures that they receive the necessary care to manage any potential side effects or complications effectively.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse administers IV morphine to a postoperative client. Which parameter should the nurse assess first after administration?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Morphine, an opioid, relieves pain but depresses respiration via mu-receptor agonism. Assessing respiratory rate first detects early depression (e.g., <12 bpm), a life-threatening risk requiring immediate action (e.g., naloxone). Pain level gauges efficacy but follows safety. Blood pressure and pulse may drop, but respiratory compromise is morphine's primary danger post-op, where patients are vulnerable. Prioritizing breathing aligns with ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) and morphine's pharmacology, ensuring oxygenation before comfort. This sequence prevents overdose escalation, making B the first parameter to assess after administration.