A 27-year-old man is prescribed with an antidepressant for seasonal affective disorder. This particular antidepressant may also help him quit smoking. Which of the following antidepressants is he likely taking?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the likely antidepressant the 27-year-old man is prescribed for seasonal affective disorder that may also help him quit smoking is Bupropion (option A). Bupropion is an atypical antidepressant that is commonly used for both depression and smoking cessation. Educational Context: Bupropion functions by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine, which can help alleviate depressive symptoms and reduce cravings for nicotine. It is particularly effective for individuals who have depression and are trying to quit smoking. Understanding the dual mechanism of action of Bupropion is crucial for healthcare professionals when prescribing this medication for patients with comorbid conditions. Why Others are Incorrect: - Duloxetine (option B) is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor primarily used for depression and anxiety disorders, but it is not known to aid in smoking cessation. - Imipramine (option C) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for depression but is not commonly associated with smoking cessation. - Sertraline (option D) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression, anxiety disorders, and other conditions, but it is not typically used for smoking cessation. In conclusion, understanding the specific pharmacological actions and indications of different CNS drugs is essential for healthcare providers to make informed decisions when prescribing medications for patients with complex presentations like seasonal affective disorder and smoking cessation needs.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: NSAIDs (e.g., ibuprofen, aspirin) inhibit cyclo-oxygenase (COX) enzymes (choice B), reducing prostaglandin synthesis, which mediates inflammation, pain, and fever. Cholinesterase (choice A) is targeted by anticholinesterases, not NSAIDs. Lipo-oxygenase (choice C) produces leukotrienes, unaffected by most NSAIDs. Phosphodiesterase (choice D) relates to cAMP, irrelevant here. COX inhibition is the unifying mechanism, critical for understanding NSAID effects and side effects like GI irritation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Morphine treats acute abdominal pain (choice A), like postoperative pain, via mu agonism, though diagnosis is key due to masking. Head injury (choice B) contraindicates it due to respiratory depression and ICP rise. Bronchial asthma (choice C) worsens with respiratory suppression. Neurogenic shock (choice D) isn't a primary indication. Acute pain aligns with morphine's analgesic role.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Allopurinol (choice A) reduces serum and urinary uric acid by inhibiting xanthine oxidase, preventing urate formation, ideal for chronic gout post-acute attack. Colchicine (choice B) and Indomethacin (choice C) treat acute inflammation, not uric acid levels. Probenecid (choice D) increases urinary uric acid excretion, not decreasing it. Allopurinol fits the description for long-term gout management.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology of CNS drugs, it is crucial to understand the side effects associated with anti-psychotic medications. In this question, the correct answer is C) Hypertension. The rationale for this is that anti-psychotic drugs, particularly the first-generation or typical anti-psychotics, are known to cause a range of side effects due to their mechanism of action on dopamine receptors in the brain. However, hypertension is not a common side effect associated with these medications. Option A) Parkinsonism is a known side effect of anti-psychotic drugs, particularly the typical ones, due to their blocking effect on dopamine receptors in the basal ganglia. Option B) Tardive dyskinesia is also a well-known side effect of long-term use of anti-psychotic medications, especially the first-generation drugs. It is characterized by involuntary movements of the face and body. Option D) Galactorrhea is a side effect commonly seen with anti-psychotic medications that have a high affinity for dopamine receptors, leading to increased levels of prolactin in the body, which can cause lactation in both men and women. Understanding these side effects is essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage patients on anti-psychotic medications effectively. Educating students on the side effect profile of CNS drugs helps in safe prescribing practices and patient care.