ATI RN
Pharmacology CNS Drugs Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 27-year-old hospital worker has access to the pharmacy when no other workers are around. He is able to find morphine and inject himself with supratherapeutic dose of morphine. He then collapses and is found dead by coworkers 24 h later. What is the most likely explanation for his death?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most likely explanation for the death of the 27-year-old hospital worker who injected himself with a supratherapeutic dose of morphine and collapsed is option D) Respiratory depression and arrest. Morphine, being an opioid, acts on the central nervous system to depress respiratory drive, leading to hypoventilation and potentially respiratory arrest. In this case, the supratherapeutic dose of morphine caused his respiratory system to slow down to the point of failure, resulting in his death. Option A) Cardiac arrest, and option B) Cardiac ischemia are less likely explanations in this scenario because morphine overdose primarily affects the respiratory system rather than the heart. While opioids can indirectly impact the cardiovascular system through effects like decreased blood pressure or heart rate, in this case, the immediate cause of death is more likely related to respiratory depression. Option C) Cardiomyopathy is also an unlikely cause of death in this scenario as it refers to a chronic condition where the heart muscle becomes weakened. It is not the immediate consequence of a supratherapeutic dose of morphine. From an educational perspective, this case underscores the importance of understanding the pharmacological effects of opioids, particularly on the respiratory system. It highlights the dangers of opioid misuse and the potential life-threatening consequences of overdosing on these substances. Healthcare professionals need to be vigilant in educating patients and the community about the risks associated with opioid use and the importance of safe storage and administration to prevent such tragic outcomes.
Question 2 of 5
A 21-year-old male college student complains of difficulty falling asleep at night. He asks if there is anything “mild†he can take to help him get to sleep. Which of the following hypnotics mimics an endogenous hormone?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Ramelteon. Ramelteon is a melatonin receptor agonist that mimics the endogenous hormone melatonin, which plays a key role in regulating the sleep-wake cycle. By acting on melatonin receptors in the brain, ramelteon helps to promote sleep onset without causing the same risks of tolerance or dependence seen with traditional hypnotic medications. A) Diazepam and B) Lorazepam are benzodiazepines that act on GABA receptors in the brain to induce sedation. While they can help with sleep, they are not mimicking an endogenous hormone like melatonin. C) Phenobarbital is a barbiturate that enhances the activity of GABA receptors, leading to sedation and sleep. However, it does not mimic an endogenous hormone like melatonin. Educationally, understanding the mechanism of action of different hypnotic medications is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions when treating sleep disorders. Knowing that ramelteon targets melatonin receptors specifically can help clinicians tailor treatment options based on a patient's individual needs and underlying conditions. This knowledge also highlights the importance of considering non-traditional hypnotics, like ramelteon, in certain populations to avoid potential risks associated with other sedative agents.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following statements is correct about the normal functioning of the nicotinic receptors in a 19-year-old man college student athlete from the college baseball team?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of a 19-year-old college student athlete, understanding the normal functioning of nicotinic receptors in the autonomic ganglia is crucial for pharmacology knowledge. Option C is correct because nicotinic receptors are indeed located in the autonomic ganglia, where they play a key role in mediating the effects of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the autonomic nervous system. Option A is incorrect because while nicotine does bind to nicotinic receptors, it does not stimulate them at high doses; instead, it can desensitize these receptors. Option B is incorrect as nicotinic receptors are not primarily located in the adrenal cortex but rather in the autonomic ganglia and at the neuromuscular junction. Option D is incorrect because nicotinic receptors located at the neuromuscular junction are known as NM receptors, not NN receptors. Understanding the specific locations and functions of nicotinic receptors is vital for understanding the effects of drugs that target these receptors, especially in the context of a young athlete where pharmacological interactions can impact performance and health.
Question 4 of 5
A 56-year-old man who is hospitalized for viral encephalitis develops pill-rolling tremors of the hands and cogwheel rigidity. He is thought to have parkinsonian symptoms that developed because of an underlying secondary cause. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of this condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the most likely etiology of the parkinsonian symptoms in the 56-year-old man with viral encephalitis is option C: Viral encephalitis. Viral encephalitis can lead to the development of parkinsonian symptoms due to the inflammation and damage caused to the basal ganglia by the viral infection. This can result in pill-rolling tremors of the hands and cogwheel rigidity, as seen in Parkinson's disease. Option A, Carotid arterial atherosclerosis, is not typically associated with the development of parkinsonian symptoms. Option B, Large brain aneurysm, would more likely present with symptoms related to increased intracranial pressure rather than parkinsonian features. Option D, Use of cocaine, can cause movement disorders but is less likely to be the cause in this patient with a clear history of viral encephalitis. Understanding the etiology of parkinsonian symptoms in this context is crucial for healthcare providers to make accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment for patients presenting with similar symptoms following viral encephalitis.
Question 5 of 5
A 15-year-old boy presents to clinic for follow-up for his tonic-clonic seizures. He reports that he has not had a seizure in the past 6 months. However, he has been more tired recently and is unsure why. A complete blood count is performed and shows megaloblastic anemia. The physician told the patient that this was most likely a side effect of his antiseizure medication. What is the most likely medication he was taking?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) Phenytoin. Phenytoin is known to cause megaloblastic anemia as a side effect due to its interference with folic acid metabolism. This drug can lead to folate deficiency, resulting in the development of megaloblastic anemia. A) Carbamazepine is less likely to cause megaloblastic anemia compared to Phenytoin. It is known to cause hyponatremia and leukopenia as side effects. B) Ethosuximide is primarily used for absence seizures and is not associated with megaloblastic anemia as a side effect. C) Phenobarbital is more commonly associated with side effects like sedation, cognitive impairment, and physical dependence rather than megaloblastic anemia. Educationally, understanding the side effects of antiseizure medications is crucial for healthcare providers to monitor and manage patients effectively. Recognizing potential adverse effects like megaloblastic anemia can lead to timely interventions and improved patient outcomes. It highlights the importance of regular monitoring and educating patients on possible side effects to promote medication adherence and safety.