ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 27-year-old female patient is diagnosed with invasive cervical cancer and is told she needs to have a hysterectomy. One of the nursing diagnoses for this patient is disturbed body image related to perception of femininity. What intervention would be most appropriate for this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reassure the patient that she does not have to have sex to be feminine. Rationale: 1. Acknowledges patient's feelings: By reassuring the patient that she does not have to have sex to be feminine, the nurse validates the patient's emotions and concerns. 2. Addresses societal norms: This intervention challenges societal stereotypes that equate femininity solely with reproductive capabilities. 3. Promotes self-acceptance: Encouraging the patient to embrace her femininity beyond physical aspects fosters self-acceptance and self-worth. 4. Supports holistic care: Recognizing the multifaceted nature of femininity shows a holistic approach to addressing the patient's body image issues. Summary: A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the patient's specific concerns about her body image and femininity. Choice B is the most appropriate intervention as it validates the patient's feelings and challenges societal norms, promoting self-acceptance and holistic care
Question 2 of 9
A patient with HIV is admitted to the hospital because of chronic severe diarrhea. The nurse caring for this patient should expect the physician to order what drug for the management of the patients diarrhea?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sandostatin. This drug is a somatostatin analog that can help manage HIV-related chronic severe diarrhea by reducing gastrointestinal secretions. Sandostatin works by inhibiting the release of various hormones and neurotransmitters in the gut, which can help control diarrhea in HIV patients. Rationale: A: Zithromax is an antibiotic that is not typically used to manage chronic severe diarrhea in HIV patients. C: Levaquin is also an antibiotic and not indicated for managing diarrhea in HIV patients. D: Biaxin is another antibiotic and not the appropriate choice for managing chronic severe diarrhea in HIV patients. In summary, Sandostatin is the correct choice as it specifically targets the underlying cause of diarrhea in HIV patients by reducing gastrointestinal secretions, whereas the other options are antibiotics that are not indicated for this purpose.
Question 3 of 9
A 76-year-old with a diagnosis of penile cancer has been admitted to the medical floor. Because the incidence of penile cancer is so low, the staff educator has been asked to teach about penile cancer. What risk factors should the educator cite in this presentation? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phimosis. Phimosis, the inability to retract the foreskin over the glans penis, is a significant risk factor for penile cancer. Phimosis can lead to poor hygiene, inflammation, and chronic irritation, increasing the risk of cancer development. The other choices (B: Priapism, C: Herpes simplex infection, D: Increasing age, E: Lack of circumcision) are not directly linked to penile cancer development. Priapism is prolonged and painful erection unrelated to penile cancer. Herpes simplex infection is a viral infection and not a primary risk factor for penile cancer. Increasing age is a general risk factor for many cancers, but it is not specific to penile cancer. Lack of circumcision has been associated with a slightly higher risk of penile cancer, but it is not as significant as phimosis.
Question 4 of 9
You are caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with genital herpes. When preparing a teaching plan for this patient, what general guidelines should be taught?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because thorough handwashing is essential in preventing the spread of genital herpes. This helps reduce the risk of transmission to other parts of the body or to other individuals. Sunbathing (B) does not eradicate the virus and can actually worsen symptoms. Massaging lesions with ointment (C) can aggravate the sores and lead to further infection. Self-infection (D) can occur from touching lesions during a breakout due to the highly contagious nature of the virus. Therefore, teaching the patient about thorough handwashing is crucial in managing and preventing the spread of genital herpes.
Question 5 of 9
Fraternal twins are delivered by your Rh-negative patient. Twin A is Rh-positive and twin B is Rh-negative. Prior to administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM), the nurse should determine the results of the
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: indirect Coombs test of the mother. This test is crucial to determine if the mother has developed antibodies against the Rh-positive blood of twin A, which could lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies. A direct Coombs test of twin A or twin B is not relevant in this scenario as it does not provide information about the mother's antibody status. Transcutaneous bilirubin levels are used to monitor jaundice in newborns and not related to Rh incompatibility. In summary, the indirect Coombs test of the mother is the most relevant test to assess the risk of hemolytic disease in future pregnancies.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with otosclerosis has significant hearing loss. What should the nurse do to best facilitate communication with the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sit or stand in front of the patient when speaking. This choice is correct because it allows the patient with otosclerosis to directly see the nurse's face and lip movements, aiding in lip-reading and understanding speech. Sitting or standing in front of the patient also ensures better eye contact and reduces background noise interference. Choice B is incorrect because exaggerated lip and mouth movements may distort speech and make it harder for the patient to understand. Choice C is incorrect because standing in front of a light or window can create glare and make it difficult for the patient to see the nurse's face clearly. Choice D is incorrect because saying the patient's name loudly before starting to talk does not directly address the communication needs of a patient with otosclerosis.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has had a sudden loss of vision after head trauma. How should the nurse best describe the placement of items on the dinner tray?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because using clock cues helps the patient visualize the placement of items based on a familiar concept. This aids in compensating for the loss of vision after head trauma. Choice B does not provide specific guidance on how to describe the placement. Choice C may be confusing for the patient as it is not a common way to describe item placement. Choice D puts unnecessary burden on the patient to describe the location first before confirming, which may be challenging for someone with sudden loss of vision.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is caring for patients with dysphagia. Which patient has neurogenic dysphagia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because neurogenic dysphagia is caused by neurological conditions affecting swallowing function, such as a stroke. In a stroke, damage to the brain can impair the coordination of swallowing muscles, leading to dysphagia. Choice A is incorrect because benign peptic stricture is a narrowing of the esophagus due to chronic acid reflux, not a neurological issue. Choice B is incorrect because muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that affects muscle strength and does not directly impact the neurological control of swallowing. Choice C is incorrect because myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that affects neuromuscular transmission but is not typically associated with neurogenic dysphagia.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is inserting an indwelling urinary catheterfor a male patient. Which action will the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because cleansing the meatus with circular strokes starting at the meatus and moving outward helps prevent the introduction of bacteria into the urethra. This technique minimizes the risk of urinary tract infections. Holding the shaft at a 60-degree angle (A) or with the dominant hand (B) is not necessary for catheter insertion. Cleansing the meatus 3 times with the same cotton ball (C) can introduce more bacteria and is not recommended.