A 27-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric hospital with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, manic phase. She is demanding and active. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide a structured environment with little stimuli. In the manic phase of bipolar disorder, clients often exhibit increased energy, agitation, and impulsivity. A structured environment with minimal stimuli helps reduce overstimulation and provides a sense of predictability, promoting a sense of safety and stability. This intervention can help prevent escalation of manic symptoms and promote self-regulation. Summary: B: Encouraging group activities may overstimulate the client and exacerbate manic symptoms. C: Allowing the client to set her own schedule may lead to erratic behavior and lack of boundaries. D: Administering sedative medications should be a last resort and not the initial intervention for managing manic symptoms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Small amount of effort to solve the problem. This strategy is appropriate because it focuses on breaking down tasks into smaller, more manageable steps, which can help the client with depression feel less overwhelmed and more motivated to address personal hygiene and responsibilities. By taking small steps, the client can experience a sense of accomplishment and gradually increase their engagement in self-care activities. Option B: Encouraging the client to set daily goals may be overwhelming for someone with depression and may not address the underlying issues causing the lack of motivation. Option C: Providing opportunities for social interaction is important for overall well-being, but it may not directly address the client's specific coping needs related to personal hygiene and lack of enjoyment in activities. Option D: Teaching relaxation techniques can be helpful for managing stress and anxiety, but it may not directly address the client's lack of motivation and engagement in self-care activities.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer the prescribed anticholinergic Benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia. In this scenario, the client's presentation of walking in a laterally contracted position and attributing it to something external causing his body to contort into a monster is indicative of acute dystonia, a side effect of antipsychotic medications like Risperidone. Administering Benztropine, an anticholinergic medication, helps alleviate dystonic symptoms by blocking the effects of excess acetylcholine in the brain. It is important to address dystonic symptoms promptly to prevent further distress and potential complications. Incorrect choices: B: Reassuring the client that the sensation is temporary does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms and may lead to increased distress. C: Encouraging the client to relax and breathe deeply may not effectively manage the acute dystonic symptoms and could delay proper treatment. D: While documenting the client's symptoms and notifying

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because attempting to physically restrain the client can escalate the situation and potentially harm the client or the mental health worker. Restraints should only be used as a last resort and under the guidance of a healthcare professional. Choice B is not ideal as it may not effectively de-escalate the situation. Choice C may further agitate the client. Choice D is not the most critical concern at the moment compared to physical restraint.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because safety of other clients is the priority. Moving other clients to another room ensures their well-being and respects their privacy. Administering sedative medication (B) should be a last resort and requires consent. Confronting the client (C) may escalate the situation. Ignoring the behavior (D) neglects duty of care.