A 27-year old adult is admitted for treatment of Crohn’s disease. Which information is most significant when the nurse assesses nutritional health?

Questions 75

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

A 27-year old adult is admitted for treatment of Crohn’s disease. Which information is most significant when the nurse assesses nutritional health?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anthropometric measurements. This includes height, weight, and body mass index, which are crucial indicators of the nutritional status of a patient with Crohn's disease. It helps assess malnutrition, muscle wasting, and overall nutritional health. Dry skin (B), bleeding gums (C), and facial rubor (D) are not direct indicators of nutritional health in a patient with Crohn's disease. Dry skin may indicate dehydration, bleeding gums may suggest poor oral hygiene or gum disease, and facial rubor may be a sign of inflammation but are not specific to nutritional status.

Question 2 of 9

A patient has iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods will best help provide dietary iron?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lean red meats. Lean red meats are a rich source of heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron found in plant-based foods. Heme iron helps improve iron levels more effectively in individuals with iron deficiency anemia. Fresh fruits (A) and dairy products (B) contain minimal iron, while breads and cereals (D) provide non-heme iron which is not as readily absorbed.

Question 3 of 9

Severe and extensive hemolysis causes which of the ff?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Severe and extensive hemolysis leads to the release of large amounts of hemoglobin into the bloodstream, causing hemoglobinemia. This can result in hemoglobinuria, leading to acute renal failure and ultimately shock. Shock is the correct answer as it is a severe consequence of extensive hemolysis. Leg ulcers (A) may occur in conditions like peripheral arterial disease. Priapism (C) is unrelated to hemolysis. Compromised growth (D) is not a common consequence of hemolysis.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the ff must the nurse consider when administering IV fluids to clients with hypertension?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because monitoring the site and progress of the infusion every hour is crucial to prevent complications like infiltration or infection in clients with hypertension. Choice A is incorrect as checking BP every hour is excessive. Choice C is incorrect as daily monitoring may not detect issues promptly. Choice D is incorrect as pulse rate monitoring is not directly related to IV fluid administration in this context. Monitoring the site and progress hourly ensures timely intervention if any issues arise.

Question 5 of 9

Halfway through the administration of a unit of blood, a client complains of lumbar pain. The nurse should:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop the transfusion. Lumbar pain during blood administration could indicate a transfusion reaction, such as a hemolytic reaction or fluid overload. Stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further harm to the client. Obtaining vital signs (A) is important but not the priority when a transfusion reaction is suspected. Assessing the pain further (B) may delay necessary intervention. Increasing the flow of normal saline (D) is not indicated and may worsen fluid overload. In this situation, stopping the transfusion is the most appropriate action to ensure client safety.

Question 6 of 9

A client complains of sporadic epigastric pain, yellow skin, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and fatigue. Suspecting gallbladder disease, the physician orders a diagnostic workup, which reveals gallbladder cancer. Which nursing diagnosis may be appropriate for this client?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anticipatory grieving. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate because the client's symptoms, such as weight loss, fatigue, and diagnosis of gallbladder cancer, indicate a serious health condition that may lead to emotional distress. Anticipatory grieving involves feelings of loss and sadness related to an anticipated loss, such as the diagnosis of cancer. The client may experience fear, anxiety, and sadness due to the potential impact of the illness on their life. Choice B (Disturbed body image) is incorrect because the client's symptoms are more indicative of a serious health concern rather than body image issues. Choice C (Impaired swallowing) is incorrect as the symptoms described do not suggest difficulty with swallowing. Choice D (Chronic low self-esteem) is also incorrect as the symptoms are more likely related to physical health issues rather than self-esteem concerns.

Question 7 of 9

A client is scheduled for surgery for an abdominal hysterectomy. During the preoperative assessment, the client states, 'I am very nervous and scared to have surgery.' What client outcome is the priority?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Resolve the client’s anxiety. Addressing the client's anxiety is the priority because it can impact their overall surgical experience, recovery, and outcomes. Resolving anxiety can improve the client's emotional well-being, enhance cooperation during surgery, and reduce postoperative complications related to stress. Providing emotional support and reassurance should be the initial focus to help the client feel more comfortable and confident about the upcoming surgery. The other choices are not the priority in this situation: A) Evaluating the need for antibiotics can be addressed later in the preoperative process, C) Providing preoperative education is important but not the immediate priority over addressing anxiety, and D) Preparing the client for surgery includes various components, but emotional well-being should be addressed first.

Question 8 of 9

A client is admitted for a spelenectomy. What problem is the nurse aware that could develop?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infection. After a splenectomy, the client is at risk for infection due to the spleen's role in the immune system. Without the spleen, the body's ability to fight infections is reduced. Infections can be serious and life-threatening. B: Urinary retention is not a typical complication of a splenectomy. C: Congestive heart failure is not directly related to a splenectomy. D: Viral hepatitis is not a common complication of a splenectomy.

Question 9 of 9

The nurse is caring for a client in the emergency room diagnosed with Bell’s palsy. The client has been taking acetaminophen (Tylenol), and acetaminophen overdose is suspected. The nurse anticipates that the antidote to be prescribed is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It works by replenishing glutathione, which helps neutralize the toxic metabolite of acetaminophen. Pentostatin, Fludarabine, and Auranofin are not antidotes for acetaminophen overdose and are used for different conditions. Acetylcysteine is the correct choice as it directly counteracts the toxic effects of acetaminophen.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days