ATI RN
Pharmacology Assessment 2 ATI Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 26-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of seasonal allergies. She has done well without medications for some time but now has worsening of her symptoms. She is given a prescription for fexofenadine. Which of the following adverse effects must be considered in this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fexofenadine for allergies may cause headache , a frequent side effect of this non-sedating antihistamine. Flank pain , otitis , infection , and tinnitus (E) are rare. Headache monitoring ensures safe symptom relief.
Question 2 of 5
The client receives diphenhydramine (Benadryl) to control allergic symptoms. Which common symptom does the nurse teach the client to report to the physician?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Diphenhydramine, a first-generation antihistamine, has anticholinergic effects, including urinary hesitancy , due to reduced bladder contractility. This can escalate to retention, a serious issue, especially in older adults or those with prostate issues, warranting physician reporting. Sedation is expected and manageable, not typically reported unless severe. Diarrhea isn't common; constipation is more likely. Projectile vomiting suggests a different pathology, not a typical antihistamine effect. The nurse teaches reporting urinary hesitancy as it's a significant anticholinergic complication requiring intervention, making choice D the priority symptom to monitor.
Question 3 of 5
The client tells the nurse that her symptoms have become worse since she has been using oxymetazoline (Afrin) for nasal congestion. What is the best assessment question for the nurse to ask?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Oxymetazoline causes rebound congestion if used beyond 3-5 days. Asking 'How long have you been using the medication?' identifies misuse, the likely cause of worsening symptoms. Bottle age , temperature , and other medications are secondary. D targets the root issue, making it the best question.
Question 4 of 5
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed theophylline. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Theophylline, a bronchodilator, treats COPD but has a narrow therapeutic range (10-20 mcg/mL). Monitoring theophylline levels prevents toxicity (e.g., seizures, tachycardia) or subtherapeutic dosing, ensuring efficacy. Sodium , glucose , and platelets aren't directly impacted. Blood level checks align with theophylline's pharmacokinetics'hepatic metabolism, variable clearance'critical in COPD where respiratory support hinges on precision. This focus prevents adverse outcomes, making A the key value to monitor for safe, effective therapy.
Question 5 of 5
The following drugs cause their primary pharmacodynamic effect via non-receptor mediated mechanisms:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mannitol works osmotically, increasing urine flow without binding to receptors. Others rely on receptor or enzyme-based actions.