ATI RN
Pharmacology Assessment 2 ATI Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 26-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of seasonal allergies. She has done well without medications for some time but now has worsening of her symptoms. She is given a prescription for fexofenadine. Which of the following adverse effects must be considered in this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fexofenadine for allergies may cause headache , a frequent side effect of this non-sedating antihistamine. Flank pain , otitis , infection , and tinnitus (E) are rare. Headache monitoring ensures safe symptom relief.
Question 2 of 5
A patient who has been anticoagulated with warfarin (Coumadin) has been admitted for gastrointestinal bleeding. The history and physical examination indicates that the patient may have taken too much warfarin. The nurse anticipates that the patient will receive which antidote?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. In cases of warfarin overdose or excessive anticoagulation leading to bleeding events, the antidote is vitamin K. Vitamin K helps to reverse the effects of warfarin by promoting the production of clotting factors that are inhibited by warfarin. Administering vitamin K can help normalize the patient's coagulation parameters and stop bleeding in cases of warfarin over-anticoagulation.
Question 3 of 5
A patient's chart includes an order that reads as follows: 'Lanoxin 250 mcg once daily at 0900.' Which action by the nurse is correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lanoxin (digoxin) is a medication commonly used to treat heart failure and arrhythmias. The order specifies the dosage and timing but does not indicate the route of administration. Since digoxin can be administered orally, intravenously, or intramuscularly, the nurse must clarify the route with the prescriber to ensure safe and accurate administration. Administering the medication via the wrong route could lead to serious complications, such as toxicity or ineffective treatment. Therefore, contacting the prescriber for clarification is the correct and safest action for the nurse to take.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following adverse effects is specific to the biguanide diabetic drug metformin (Glucophage) therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metformin (Glucophage) is a biguanide medication used to manage type 2 diabetes. While it is generally well-tolerated, one of its rare but serious adverse effects is lactic acidosis, a condition characterized by the buildup of lactic acid in the bloodstream. This can occur in patients with renal impairment or other risk factors. Hypoglycemia is uncommon with metformin alone, and GI distress, though common, is not life-threatening. Somnolence is not typically associated with metformin. Therefore, lactic acidosis is the most specific and serious adverse effect.
Question 5 of 5
The ophthalmologist asks the nurse to prepare to assist in the administration of tetracaine, fluorescein stain, and atropine for a diagnostic eye examination. Before assisting in the procedure, it is most important for the nurse to inform the ophthalmologist if the patient has a history of which condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atropine is a mydriatic agent that dilates the pupil and can precipitate angle-closure glaucoma in patients with a narrow anterior chamber angle. Therefore, it is critical to inform the ophthalmologist if the patient has a history of angle-closure glaucoma. Cataracts (A), open-angle glaucoma (C), and macular degeneration (D) are not contraindications for the use of atropine.