A 26-year-old woman comes to your clinic, complaining of leakage of stool despite generally normal, pain-free bowel movements. She denies any blood in her stool or on the toilet paper. She has had no recent episodes of diarrhea. Her past medical history includes a spontaneous vaginal delivery 3 months ago. She had a fourth-degree tear of the perineal area (from the vagina through the rectum) that was surgically repaired after delivery. A few days later the patient developed an abscess in the anal area that had to be incised and drained. She denies using any tobacco, alcohol, or illegal drugs. Her mother and father are both in good health. She denies any weight gain, weight loss, fever, or night sweats. She is still breast-feeding without any problems. On examination you visualize a small opening anterior to the anus with some surrounding erythema. There is not a mass or other inflammation on inspection. Digital rectal examination reveals smooth rectal walls with no blood. She has no pain during the rectal examination. Bimanual vaginal examination is also normal. What anal or rectal disorder is the most likely cause of her symptom?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most likely cause of the woman's symptom of stool leakage despite normal bowel movements is an anorectal fistula. An anorectal fistula is an abnormal, tunnel-like connection between the anal canal or rectum and the skin around the anus. In this case, the small opening anterior to the anus with surrounding erythema on examination suggests the presence of a fistula.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Mr. Patel's case involves an enlarged liver, which warrants further investigation to determine the underlying cause. An ultrasound of the liver would provide valuable information regarding the size, shape, and texture of the liver, helping to identify any potential abnormalities such as liver cirrhosis, fatty liver disease, or liver tumors. This imaging study can also help differentiate between different conditions that may be causing the liver enlargement, guiding subsequent diagnostic and treatment decisions. Therefore, obtaining an ultrasound of the liver is the most appropriate next step in evaluating Mr. Patel's condition.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most likely cause of the woman's symptom of stool leakage despite normal bowel movements is an anorectal fistula. An anorectal fistula is an abnormal, tunnel-like connection between the anal canal or rectum and the skin around the anus. In this case, the small opening anterior to the anus with surrounding erythema on examination suggests the presence of a fistula.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: It is important to maintain a calm demeanor when walking into the examination room to speak with your first clinic patient, especially in a busy and high-pressure situation. Demonstrating calmness will help to build rapport with the patient, create a sense of trust, and promote effective communication. This demeanor will also convey professionalism and confidence, which are essential qualities for a healthcare provider. Displaying irritability, impatience, or boredom can negatively impact the patient-provider relationship and hinder effective communication, potentially compromising the quality of care provided.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of pain that is markedly worse when the left arm is drawn across the chest (adduction) is characteristic of a rotator cuff tear. This is because when the arm is adducted, it puts stress on the torn rotator cuff tendons, causing pain. In contrast, subacromial bursitis typically presents with pain during overhead movements, acromioclavicular joint involvement may present with pain localized to the joint itself, and adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder) typically presents with pain and stiffness that worsens with all movements.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: It is important to show empathy and address Mrs. Donelan's feelings about missing her husband. By asking why Bill is not there, you are opening the door for her to talk about her emotions and potentially offer support or resources. This can help build a stronger patient-provider relationship and address any underlying emotional concerns she may have. It is important to prioritize the patient's emotional well-being along with their physical health during the visit.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Diplopia occurring when one eye is covered is a condition known as monocular diplopia. This symptom is typically not caused by problems within the eye itself, such as irregularities in the cornea or lens. Instead, monocular diplopia with one eye covered is more likely to be an indication of a neurological issue, often involving the brainstem. Lesions or damage in the brainstem can disrupt the normal coordination of eye movements, leading to the perception of double vision when one eye is closed. Weakness of CN III (oculomotor nerve) or CN IV (trochlear nerve) may cause diplopia when both eyes are open, but it would not typically manifest as monocular diplopia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Scotomas refer to areas of partial alteration in the field of vision. These blind spots can be caused by various eye conditions such as glaucoma, retinal detachment, or optic nerve damage. Symptoms involving the eye like scotomas are important to recognize and address promptly to prevent potential vision loss or other complications. Tinnitus (choice B) refers to ringing in the ears, dysphagia (choice C) refers to difficulty swallowing, and rhinorrhea (choice D) refers to a runny nose, none of which are symptoms involving the eye.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A cough can be attributed to various anatomic regions. Cardiac conditions, such as heart failure or fluid overload, can lead to congestion in the lungs and irritation of the airway, resulting in a cough. Ophthalmologic, auditory, and endocrine regions are less commonly associated with causing a cough.