ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 25-year-old woman with myoclonic seizures is well controlled on valproate. She indicates that she is interested in becoming pregnant in the next year. With respect to her antiepilepsy medication, which of the following should be considered?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Valproate controls myoclonic seizures but is teratogenic, linked to neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida) and cognitive deficits in offspring, posing significant pregnancy risks. Switching to lamotrigine, effective for myoclonic seizures and safer (lower teratogenicity), is recommended preconception after titration. Continuing valproate unchanged ignores fetal harm. Adding another drug increases complexity without addressing valproate's risks. Lowering the dose may compromise seizure control. Lamotrigine's efficacy and better pregnancy safety profile, per guidelines, make it the best consideration.
Question 2 of 5
A 3-year-old girl was found by her mother chewing on some weeds in their flower garden. The mother rushed her to the hospital along with a portion of the weed. The emergency department physician identifies the weed as deadly nightshade, which contains atropine. Which of the following physiologic changes will be expected because of this patient's atropine exposure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Deadly nightshade (atropine) blocks muscarinic receptors. Decreased gastric acid secretion is correct-atropine inhibits parasympathetic stimulation of parietal cells. Bradycardia is wrong; tachycardia occurs. Increased bronchial secretions and salivation decrease, as does miosis (E)-pupils dilate. This anticholinergic effect explains the expected change in this poisoning.
Question 3 of 5
Antihistamines block the actions of histamine at the
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Antihistamines target H1 receptors for allergy relief, not B1/B2 (choices B, C) or nonexistent C1 . A reflects their mechanism, making it correct.
Question 4 of 5
This serves as an indication of time required for a dosing regimen to achieve a steady state concentration of drug in blood
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The half-life is the time required for the concentration of a drug in the blood to decrease by 50%. It serves as an indication of the time required for a dosing regimen to achieve a steady state concentration of the drug in the blood. Understanding the half-life of a drug is crucial for determining the dosing interval needed to maintain therapeutic levels. Long half-lives require less frequent dosing to reach steady state, while short half-lives demand more frequent dosing to achieve the desired drug concentration in the blood over time.
Question 5 of 5
A client has been prescribed testosterone. Which medication education should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Testosterone patches require placement on hair-free skin to ensure proper adhesion and absorption, as hair can block drug delivery, reducing efficacy. Active areas like the thigh or arm are suitable if hairless and dry, contrary to avoidance claims-rotation across such sites is standard. Patches are changed daily, not weekly, for consistent hormone levels. Rash observation is key due to potential skin irritation, a common side effect. Hair-free placement is critical education, directly impacting bioavailability, unlike timing or site activity, which follow secondary guidelines, ensuring effective therapy for hypogonadism or related conditions.