ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 25-year-old woman suffers a bee sting and within a few minutes she notices a blotchy rash appearing on her body. She is taken to A&E where her BP is 90/60 mmHg. The most appropriate immediate therapy would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Anaphylaxis (rash, hypotension) post-bee sting needs urgent reversal. Oral antihistamine is too slow for systemic shock. IV adrenaline (1:10000) suits cardiac arrest, not initial anaphylaxis. IV hydrocortisone acts slowly, supporting later. IM adrenaline (0.5 mL 1:1000, 0.5 mg) rapidly reverses bronchospasm and hypotension via alpha/beta agonism, the immediate therapy per guidelines. Salbutamol targets asthma, not shock. IM adrenaline's speed saves lives in anaphylaxis.
Question 2 of 5
A client with chronic back pain informs the nurse he has been receiving therapeutic touch in addition to his medications. What is the nurse's best classification of this client's treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Therapeutic touch alongside medications is complementary therapy, integrating non-drug methods with conventional treatment to enhance care. Pharmacotherapy is drug-only. Drug-absence therapy isn't a term. Biologic therapy uses biological agents, not touch. Complementary therapy fits, reflecting a holistic approach, common in pain management.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse will administer medication to a school-age child. What is the preferred action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: School-age kids (6-12) can understand drug purpose and side effects-e.g., 'This fights infection, you might feel sleepy'-fostering cooperation via cognitive growth. Threats like no recess breed resentment, not trust. Beverage choice helps but lacks education. Play delays, not enhances, administration. Teaching leverages development, improving adherence.
Question 4 of 5
A patient was prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) for the treatment of depression and anxiety. The patient's spouse calls the clinic and reports the patient is increasingly moody and seems 'disconnected with life.' What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Worsening mood and disconnection on sertraline signal risk-e.g., suicidal ideation, per SSRI warnings-needing urgent clinic assessment. Benadryl is inappropriate-sedation won't fix. Holding meds risks withdrawal. Doubling dose escalates danger. Immediate evaluation ensures safety, per protocol.
Question 5 of 5
A 22-year-old female accounting student requires a daily cup of coffee upon arising and another cup as she finishes her first class of the day. She prefers to drink caffeinated products. Which of the following is the most plausible mechanism of action of this product?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Caffeine's stimulant effect in coffee relies on adenosine receptor blockade . By inhibiting adenosine's sedative action, caffeine increases alertness, fitting her routine. Option , decreasing cAMP, contradicts caffeine's phosphodiesterase inhibition, which raises cAMP. Option , decreasing cGMP, is unrelated. Option , stimulating phosphodiesterase, opposes caffeine's action. Option (E), calcium transport, isn't primary. Adenosine antagonism drives caffeine's wakefulness, supporting her daily use to combat fatigue during study.