A 25-year-old woman suffers a bee sting and within a few minutes she notices a blotchy rash appearing on her body. She is taken to A&E where her BP is 90/60 mmHg. The most appropriate immediate therapy would be:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Anaphylaxis (rash, hypotension) post-bee sting needs urgent reversal. Oral antihistamine is too slow for systemic shock. IV adrenaline (1:10000) suits cardiac arrest, not initial anaphylaxis. IV hydrocortisone acts slowly, supporting later. IM adrenaline (0.5 mL 1:1000, 0.5 mg) rapidly reverses bronchospasm and hypotension via alpha/beta agonism, the immediate therapy per guidelines. Salbutamol targets asthma, not shock. IM adrenaline's speed saves lives in anaphylaxis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Therapeutic touch alongside medications is complementary therapy, integrating non-drug methods with conventional treatment to enhance care. Pharmacotherapy is drug-only. Drug-absence therapy isn't a term. Biologic therapy uses biological agents, not touch. Complementary therapy fits, reflecting a holistic approach, common in pain management.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: School-age kids (6-12) can understand drug purpose and side effects-e.g., 'This fights infection, you might feel sleepy'-fostering cooperation via cognitive growth. Threats like no recess breed resentment, not trust. Beverage choice helps but lacks education. Play delays, not enhances, administration. Teaching leverages development, improving adherence.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is option B: "Bring him to the clinic for assessment today." This option is the best choice because the patient's change in mood and feeling disconnected could be indicative of a serious reaction to the sertraline medication. It is crucial to assess the patient in person to evaluate their mental and emotional state, as well as any potential side effects or complications from the medication. Option A is incorrect because diphenhydramine is not a recommended treatment for mood changes associated with sertraline. It is essential to address the underlying issue rather than attempting to mask symptoms with another medication. Option C is incorrect because abruptly stopping sertraline can lead to withdrawal symptoms and may not address the root cause of the patient's mood changes. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before making any changes to the medication regimen. Option D is incorrect because doubling the dose of sertraline without proper evaluation can be dangerous and may exacerbate the patient's symptoms. Adjusting medication dosages should only be done under the guidance of a healthcare professional. In an educational context, this question highlights the importance of vigilant monitoring of patients on psychotropic medications for mental health conditions. It emphasizes the need for healthcare providers to respond promptly to reports of concerning symptoms and to prioritize patient safety and well-being in medication management. Regular assessment and communication with patients and their families are vital aspects of providing quality care in pharmacology and mental health practice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Caffeine's stimulant effect in coffee relies on adenosine receptor blockade . By inhibiting adenosine's sedative action, caffeine increases alertness, fitting her routine. Option , decreasing cAMP, contradicts caffeine's phosphodiesterase inhibition, which raises cAMP. Option , decreasing cGMP, is unrelated. Option , stimulating phosphodiesterase, opposes caffeine's action. Option (E), calcium transport, isn't primary. Adenosine antagonism drives caffeine's wakefulness, supporting her daily use to combat fatigue during study.