A 25-year-old woman presents with cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and dyspareunia. On pelvic examination, the uterus is retroverted, and a tender, nodular mass is palpated behind the uterus. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for these findings?

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Question 1 of 9

A 25-year-old woman presents with cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and dyspareunia. On pelvic examination, the uterus is retroverted, and a tender, nodular mass is palpated behind the uterus. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for these findings?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The scenario described, including cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, retroverted uterus, and a nodular mass behind the uterus, is most indicative of endometriosis. Endometriosis is a gynecological condition in which tissue similar to the endometrium (the tissue that lines the uterus) is found outside the uterus, typically on structures within the pelvis. The presence of endometrial tissue in abnormal locations can lead to symptoms such as pelvic pain, especially during menstruation (dysmenorrhea), painful intercourse (dyspareunia), and the formation of nodular masses (endometriomas) that can be felt on pelvic examination. It is important to note that while adenomyosis and uterine fibroids (leiomyomas) can also cause pelvic pain and dysmenorrhea, the specific findings of retroverted uterus and palpable nodular mass behind

Question 2 of 9

The patient asks you about goiter. You describe this disorder as ___________-.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Goiter is a condition characterized by the enlargement of the thyroid gland. The most common cause of goiter worldwide is iodine deficiency, which is required for the production of thyroid hormones. When there is insufficient iodine intake, the thyroid gland enlarges in an attempt to produce more hormones, leading to the development of goiter. While other factors can also contribute to the development of goiter, such as autoimmune diseases and certain medications, the primary cause associated with the condition is an iodine-deficient diet.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with a history of chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-phosphorus diet. Which dietary choice indicates understanding of the prescribed diet?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Grilled chicken breast is a suitable choice for a low-phosphorus diet because poultry is typically lower in phosphorus compared to dairy products (like cheese), nuts (like almonds), and whole grains (like wheat toast). This option indicates an understanding of the need to restrict phosphorus intake, which is important for individuals with chronic kidney disease to prevent complications.

Question 4 of 9

The patient verbalizes to the nurse about thought to kill his wife". The nurse is in dilemma whether to tell the wife about this Conversation. Given this situation which of the following is the appropriate action of the nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this critical situation, the safety of the wife is of utmost importance. Whenever a healthcare provider becomes aware of a direct threat to someone's safety, especially related to potential harm or violence, it is their ethical and legal responsibility to report this information to the appropriate authorities promptly. In this case, the nurse should alert the proper authorities, such as law enforcement or a mental health crisis team, to ensure that immediate steps are taken to protect the wife from harm. Confidentiality should be breached in situations where there is a clear threat to an individual's safety. Keeping the information confidential in this scenario could result in serious harm or even loss of life. The nurse must act quickly to protect the potential victim.

Question 5 of 9

In case of poisoning, the nurse is aware that the main goals in poisoning are to ________. I. inactivate the poison II. administer the specific antidote III. induce the patient to vomit IV. support vital organ functions

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In cases of poisoning, the main goals are to inactivate the poison to prevent further harm, administer the specific antidote if available to counteract the effects of the poison, and support vital organ functions to help the patient recover. Inducing the patient to vomit (III) is not always recommended as it can potentially cause more harm, especially if the ingested substance is corrosive. Therefore, the most appropriate goals in poisoning are to inactivate the poison, administer the specific antidote, and support vital organ functions.

Question 6 of 9

After a throurough assessment by the physician-specialist, an order for an immediate sonogram was made specific for the medical condition?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the physician-specialist assessed the patient and determined that an immediate sonogram is needed for the medical condition. An intervention is a specific action taken in response to a medical need or condition. Ordering an immediate sonogram falls under the category of an intervention because it involves a timely and targeted diagnostic procedure to address the medical situation identified by the physician. The other options (A. Operation Room, C. Laboratory, D. CT scan) do not accurately represent the specific action of ordering a sonogram in response to the medical condition assessed by the physician.

Question 7 of 9

A patient presents with chronic low back pain and radicular symptoms radiating down the leg. MRI reveals a herniated disc at the L5-S1 level with compression of the adjacent nerve root. Which surgical procedure is commonly performed to decompress the nerve root and alleviate symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A discectomy is a surgical procedure commonly performed to decompress the nerve root by removing a portion of the herniated disc that is pressing on the nerve. In cases of herniated discs causing radicular symptoms (such as pain radiating down the leg), a discectomy can help alleviate the compression on the nerve, reduce symptoms, and improve the patient's condition. This procedure involves removing the portion of the disc that is herniated or bulging out to relieve pressure on the nerve root, allowing for improved function and reduced pain. Spinal fusion, laminectomy, and foraminotomy are other surgical procedures that are not typically performed for the direct decompression of the nerve root in cases of herniated discs at a specific level like the L5-S1 level.

Question 8 of 9

What is the purpose of a tracheostomy. To _______.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The purpose of a tracheostomy is to establish an artificial airway in the trachea through a surgical procedure. This is done to bypass obstructions in the upper airway, assist with breathing, or facilitate the removal of secretions from the lungs. A tracheostomy helps in maintaining a clear and secure airway for patients who have difficulty breathing or require long-term mechanical ventilation support.

Question 9 of 9

A patient presents with acute onset of severe vertigo, nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus. Symptoms are worsened with head movement. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Vestibular neuritis is a condition characterized by the acute onset of severe vertigo, nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus. These symptoms are typically worsened by head movement. Vestibular neuritis is caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve, which plays a key role in balance and spatial orientation. The classic presentation of these symptoms, along with the absence of hearing loss (which is seen in labyrinthitis), points towards vestibular neuritis as the most likely cause in this scenario. Meniere's disease presents with recurrent episodes of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and sensation of fullness in the ear. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is characterized by brief episodes of vertigo triggered by changes in head position.

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