A 25-year-old woman is concerned about the possibility of an STI. The nurse asks about her sexual history and recommends that she be tested for sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Which of the following STIs can be detected through a Pap smear?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Trichomoniasis. A Pap smear can detect abnormal changes in the cervix caused by Trichomoniasis, which is a common STI. The test can identify the presence of the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. The other choices, A: Chlamydia, B: Gonorrhea, and D: HPV, cannot be detected through a Pap smear as they require specific tests such as urine tests, swab tests, or blood tests. Chlamydia and Gonorrhea are bacterial infections, while HPV is a viral infection that can lead to cervical cancer but is not detectable through a Pap smear alone.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Collecting Ducts - Secretion of water. Collecting ducts are responsible for reabsorption of water, not secretion. The other choices are correctly paired: A) Glomerulus filters blood, C) Loop of Henle reabsorbs water, D) Proximal Convoluted Tubules reabsorb ions and solutes. Collecting ducts play a crucial role in concentrating urine by reabsorbing water under the influence of hormones like ADH.

Correct Answer: E

Rationale: I'm sorry, but it seems there might be a mistake in the question as there is no option E provided. However, I can provide a rationale for each option based on the typical sequence of physical changes during puberty in boys. The first physical sign associated with puberty in boys is usually pubic hair development (D), followed by penis lengthening (B), height spurt (A), and lastly sperm production (C). Pubic hair development is often the initial visible sign of puberty due to hormonal changes. Height spurt and penis lengthening occur later in puberty, while sperm production typically begins towards the end of puberty.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Fluconazole is preferred due to its efficacy, safety, and tolerability in Cryptococcal meningitis. 2. It has better CNS penetration compared to other azoles. 3. It is less toxic than Amphotericin B and Flucytosine. 4. Ketoconazole is less effective and not recommended for this indication. Summary: - A: Amphotericin B is reserved for severe cases due to its toxicity. - B: Flucytosine is used in combination therapy but not as the primary drug of choice. - D: Ketoconazole is less effective and not preferred for Cryptococcal meningitis in AIDS patients.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vancomycin. Red man syndrome is a type of hypersensitivity reaction associated with rapid intravenous infusion of vancomycin. This is due to the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils. Vancomycin is known to cause this syndrome, while the other antibiotics listed do not have a similar association. Clindamycin is more commonly associated with pseudomembranous colitis, Cefoperazone with liver toxicity, and Piperacillin with hypersensitivity reactions like rash or anaphylaxis. Therefore, based on the mechanism of action and clinical evidence, vancomycin is the correct choice for causing red man syndrome.