ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 25-year old with hepatitis may be anicteric and symptomless. In the early part of the hepatic inflammatory disorder, the most likely symptom/sign is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: anorexia. In the early stage of hepatic inflammatory disorder, anorexia is the most likely symptom/sign. This is because hepatic inflammation can lead to a decrease in appetite, resulting in anorexia. Dark urine (A) is commonly associated with liver dysfunction but typically occurs later in the disease process. Occult blood in stools (B) is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than early hepatic inflammation. Ascites (C) is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity and is a later manifestation of liver disease. Therefore, anorexia is the most likely symptom in the early stages of hepatic inflammatory disorder.
Question 2 of 5
Nurse Raymond is handling a group of student nurses and he is teaching them about fluids and electrolytes. He is correct when he says that a substance moves from an area of higher concentration, this is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Diffusion Rationale: Diffusion is the movement of a substance from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. This process occurs naturally to achieve equilibrium. In the context of fluids and electrolytes, this movement helps maintain balance within the body. Unlike osmosis, which involves the movement of water molecules across a semi-permeable membrane, diffusion applies to the movement of all types of substances. Filtration involves the movement of substances through a barrier under pressure, and active transport requires energy to move substances against a concentration gradient. Therefore, the correct answer is diffusion as it aligns with the principle of movement from high to low concentration for achieving equilibrium.
Question 3 of 5
. Which of the following laboratory test results would suggest to the nurse that a client has a corticotrophin- secreting pituitary adenoma?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Corticotropin-secreting pituitary adenoma leads to excess adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production. 2. High corticotropin levels would be expected due to the adenoma's overproduction. 3. The high cortisol levels occur as a result of increased ACTH stimulating cortisol release from the adrenal glands. 4. Therefore, choice B (high corticotropin and high cortisol levels) is the correct answer. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect because low cortisol levels would not be expected in a client with a corticotrophin-secreting pituitary adenoma. - Choice C is incorrect because low corticotropin levels would not align with the excessive ACTH production from the adenoma. - Choice D is incorrect as both low corticotropin and low cortisol levels would not be consistent with the pathophysiology of a corticotrophin-secreting pituitary adenoma.
Question 4 of 5
In a 28-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing syndrome, the nurse would expect a decline in:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: menstrual flow. In a 28-year-old female with Cushing syndrome, excess cortisol levels can disrupt the menstrual cycle, leading to irregular or absent periods. Successful treatment for Cushing syndrome aims to restore normal cortisol levels, which should result in the resumption of regular menstrual flow. This indicates that the hormonal balance is improving. Now, let's analyze the other choices: A: Serum glucose level - While Cushing syndrome can lead to hyperglycemia, successful treatment would aim to normalize glucose levels, not cause a decline. B: Bone mineralization - Cushing syndrome can cause osteoporosis due to loss of bone density, but successful treatment would help prevent further bone loss rather than decline. C: Hair loss - Cushing syndrome can cause hair loss, but successful treatment would not necessarily lead to a decline in hair loss as it may take time for hair to regrow. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it directly relates to the restoration of hormonal
Question 5 of 5
Before administering a food feeding the nurse knows to perform which of the following assessments/
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because assessing the GI tract is crucial before feeding to ensure proper digestion and absorption. Bowel sounds, last BM, and distention indicate GI function. The client's neurologic status and gag reflex are important to prevent aspiration. Option B is not a primary concern before feeding. Option C is incorrect as formula should be warmed to room temperature before feeding.