ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 25-year old with hepatitis may be anicteric and symptomless. In the early part of the hepatic inflammatory disorder, the most likely symptom/sign is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: anorexia. In the early stage of hepatic inflammatory disorder, anorexia is the most likely symptom/sign. This is because hepatic inflammation can lead to a decrease in appetite, resulting in anorexia. Dark urine (A) is commonly associated with liver dysfunction but typically occurs later in the disease process. Occult blood in stools (B) is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than early hepatic inflammation. Ascites (C) is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity and is a later manifestation of liver disease. Therefore, anorexia is the most likely symptom in the early stages of hepatic inflammatory disorder.
Question 2 of 9
The client is suspected of having myasthenia gravis. Edrophonium (Tensilon) 2 mg is administered intravenously to determine the diagnosis. Which of the following indicates that the client has myasthenia gravis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because in myasthenia gravis, which is characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, the administration of edrophonium will temporarily improve muscle strength due to increased availability of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. This improvement should be noted within 30 to 60 seconds after the administration of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because joint pain is not a typical response to edrophonium in the context of myasthenia gravis. Choice B is incorrect because feelings of faintness, dizziness, hypotension, and flushing are more indicative of a cholinergic crisis, which occurs when too much edrophonium is administered. Choice D is incorrect because an increase in muscle strength post-edrophonium administration would not be expected in a client with myasthenia gravis.
Question 3 of 9
Following the American Cancer Society guidelines, the nurse should recommend that the women:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the American Cancer Society recommends women to have a mammogram annually starting at age 45, then have the option to transition to biennial screening at age 55. This recommendation is based on evidence that regular mammograms can help detect breast cancer early, increasing chances of successful treatment. Choice A is incorrect because self-examinations are no longer recommended as a routine screening method. Choice B is incorrect as clinical breast exams are not as effective as mammograms for detecting breast cancer. Choice D is incorrect as normal receptor assays are not part of routine breast cancer screening guidelines.
Question 4 of 9
The spouse of a client with gastric cancer expresses concern that the couple’s children may develop this type of cancer when they’re older. When reviewing risk factors for gastric cancer with the client and family, the nurse explains that a certain blood type increases the risk by 10%. The nurse is referring to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Type A blood has been associated with a slightly higher risk of developing gastric cancer compared to other blood types. Step 2: The nurse mentioned a 10% increase in risk, which aligns with the increased risk associated with Type A blood. Step 3: Type AB and Type B blood do not have the same increased risk for gastric cancer as Type A blood. Step 4: Type O blood is actually associated with a lower risk of gastric cancer compared to Type A blood. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is A: Type A blood.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is working in a support group for client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which point is most important for the nurse to stress?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because following safer-sex practices is crucial in preventing the spread of HIV/AIDS. By emphasizing this point, the nurse can educate clients on reducing the risk of transmission. Safer-sex practices include using condoms and practicing monogamy. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding recreational drugs and alcohol, while important for overall health, is not directly related to preventing the spread of HIV/AIDS. Choice B is incorrect as it is essential for individuals to inform their sexual partners about their HIV status to prevent transmission and ensure informed consent. Choice D is incorrect because while it may be required by law in some places, it is not the most crucial point for preventing the spread of HIV/AIDS within a support group setting.
Question 6 of 9
When a neurologist asks a patient to smile, which cranial nerve is being tested?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. The cranial nerve responsible for facial expression is CN VII, the facial nerve. 2. When a neurologist asks a patient to smile, they are testing the function of CN VII. 3. CN II (optic nerve) is responsible for vision, not facial expression. 4. CN X (vagus nerve) is responsible for various functions like heart rate and digestion, not facial expression. 5. CN XI (accessory nerve) is responsible for shoulder movement, not facial expression. Summary: Testing a patient's ability to smile involves assessing the function of CN VII, the facial nerve. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are associated with different functions and not responsible for controlling facial muscles.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following explanations by the nurse will help a patient understand what to expect during a bronchoscopy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it accurately describes the procedure of bronchoscopy. The nurse's explanation should focus on the insertion of a small tube through the nose or mouth into the bronchi to visualize the airways. This information helps the patient understand the basic process and what to expect during the procedure. Choice B is incorrect as bronchoscopy does not involve breathing a radioactive substance to show diseased areas in the lungs. Choice C is also incorrect as there is no requirement to drink a thick white liquid for bronchoscopy. Choice D is incorrect as dye injection is not a standard part of bronchoscopy, and asking about allergies to dye is irrelevant in this context.
Question 8 of 9
A client is being prepared for cardiac catheterization. The nurse performs an initial assessment and records the vital signs. Which of the following data collected can be classified as subjective data?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Subjective data refers to information provided by the client based on their feelings, perceptions, or beliefs. Nausea is a symptom that the client experiences and reports subjectively. The client feels nauseous, which is not something directly measurable like blood pressure, heart rate, or respiratory rate. Therefore, nausea is the correct choice for subjective data. Blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate are all objective data that can be measured and observed. Blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate are all objective data that can be measured and observed.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse develops a nursing diagnostic statement for a patient with a medical diagnosis of pneumonia with chest x-ray results of lower lobe infiltrates. Which nursing diagnosis did the nurse write?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Impaired gas exchange related to alveolar-capillary membrane changes. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with pneumonia and lower lobe infiltrates as it directly addresses the underlying physiological issue of impaired gas exchange due to alveolar-capillary membrane changes. The infiltrates indicate infection and inflammation in the lower lobes, leading to difficulty in oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange. This diagnosis aligns with the patient's medical condition and helps guide nursing interventions focused on improving oxygenation. Choice A is incorrect because ineffective breathing pattern is a broad diagnosis that does not specifically address the gas exchange issue seen in pneumonia. Choice B is incorrect as the risk for infection is already present with the diagnosis of pneumonia and does not directly address the patient's current respiratory status. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration is not the primary concern in a patient with pneumonia and lower lobe infiltrates.