A 25-year old with hepatitis may be anicteric and symptomless. In the early part of the hepatic inflammatory disorder, the most likely symptom/sign is:

Questions 75

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

A 25-year old with hepatitis may be anicteric and symptomless. In the early part of the hepatic inflammatory disorder, the most likely symptom/sign is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: anorexia. In the early stage of hepatic inflammatory disorder, anorexia is the most likely symptom/sign. This is because hepatic inflammation can lead to a decrease in appetite, resulting in anorexia. Dark urine (A) is commonly associated with liver dysfunction but typically occurs later in the disease process. Occult blood in stools (B) is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than early hepatic inflammation. Ascites (C) is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity and is a later manifestation of liver disease. Therefore, anorexia is the most likely symptom in the early stages of hepatic inflammatory disorder.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the ff is a critical task of a nurse during the uterosigmoidostomy procedure for treating a malignant tumor?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspecting for bleeding or cyanosis. During uterosigmoidostomy, the nurse's critical task is to monitor for any signs of bleeding or cyanosis, which are indicators of potential complications such as hemorrhage or impaired blood flow. This involves observing the surgical site for any abnormal bleeding and assessing the skin color for signs of inadequate oxygenation. Inspecting for symptoms of peritonitis (B) is not directly related to this surgical procedure. Assessing the client's allergy to iodine (C) is important but not a critical task during the procedure. Checking for signs of electrolyte losses (D) is important but not as critical as monitoring for immediate postoperative complications like bleeding or cyanosis.

Question 3 of 9

The client is suspected of having myasthenia gravis. Edrophonium (Tensilon) 2 mg is administered intravenously to determine the diagnosis. Which of the following indicates that the client has myasthenia gravis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because in myasthenia gravis, which is characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, the administration of edrophonium will temporarily improve muscle strength due to increased availability of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. This improvement should be noted within 30 to 60 seconds after the administration of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because joint pain is not a typical response to edrophonium in the context of myasthenia gravis. Choice B is incorrect because feelings of faintness, dizziness, hypotension, and flushing are more indicative of a cholinergic crisis, which occurs when too much edrophonium is administered. Choice D is incorrect because an increase in muscle strength post-edrophonium administration would not be expected in a client with myasthenia gravis.

Question 4 of 9

The nurse is caring for a patient with HIV. Which of the following foods would the nurse teach the patient is safe to eat to reduce the risk of infection?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cooked vegetables. Cooking vegetables helps to kill harmful bacteria and parasites that may pose a risk of infection to an immunocompromised individual like a patient with HIV. Raw fruits (A) and raw vegetables (B) may carry pathogens that can be dangerous for someone with a weakened immune system. Caesar dressing (D) may contain raw eggs, which also pose a risk for infection. Therefore, choosing cooked vegetables is the safest option to reduce the risk of infection for the patient with HIV.

Question 5 of 9

Which patient should be monitored most closely for dehydration?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, the 50-year-old with an ileostomy, should be monitored most closely for dehydration. Patients with an ileostomy have a higher risk of dehydration due to increased fluid loss through the stoma. Monitoring their fluid intake, output, electrolyte levels, and signs of dehydration is crucial to prevent complications. The other choices are less likely to experience severe dehydration compared to the patient with an ileostomy. The 72-year-old with diabetes mellitus may be at risk for dehydration, but it is not as high a risk as the patient with an ileostomy. The 19-year-old with chronic asthma and the 28-year-old with a broken femur are not as directly related to dehydration compared to the patient with an ileostomy.

Question 6 of 9

The nurse caring for an adult client. The nurse will need to monitor for which of the following metabolic complications?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, hyperglycemia and hypokalemia. Hyperglycemia can occur in adult clients due to various factors such as diabetes or stress. Hypokalemia can be a consequence of hyperglycemia or other conditions leading to potassium loss. Monitoring for these metabolic complications is essential to ensure the client's well-being. Other choices are incorrect because hypoglycemia and hypercalcemia (choice A) are less likely to occur concurrently in adult clients. Hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia (choice B) are less common as hyperkalemia is usually associated with renal dysfunction. Hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia (choice D) are less likely to be monitored together as they are not commonly seen in the same clinical context.

Question 7 of 9

An adult is being taught about a healthy diet. How can the food pyramid help guide the client on his diet?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the food pyramid suggests daily food choices based on the different food groups. It provides a visual guide on the proportions of each food group to consume for a balanced diet. It does not specify the exact number of servings (A), calculate calories (B), or divide food into four basic groups (D). The food pyramid is a tool to help individuals make healthier food choices by emphasizing variety and moderation.

Question 8 of 9

A seizure characterized by loss of consciousness and tonic spasms of the trunk and extremities rapidly followed by repetitive generalized clonic jerking is classified as:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Generalized seizure. This type of seizure involves both hemispheres of the brain from the onset, leading to loss of consciousness and tonic-clonic jerking. It is characterized by widespread, synchronized electrical discharges. A: Focal seizures start in one area of the brain, leading to localized symptoms without loss of consciousness. B: Jacksonian seizures are a type of focal seizure characterized by a progression of jerking movements from one body part to another. D: Partial seizures involve only one part of the brain, leading to localized symptoms or altered consciousness without loss of awareness.

Question 9 of 9

For a client with polycythemia vera, how can the nurse help decrease the risk for thrombus formation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Help the client don thromboembolic stocking or support hose during waking hours. This intervention helps decrease the risk for thrombus formation in polycythemia vera by promoting venous return and preventing blood pooling in the lower extremities. Compression stockings improve circulation and reduce the risk of blood clots. Isometric exercises (choice A) may increase blood pressure and heart rate, potentially worsening the risk of thrombus formation. Drinking excess fluid (choice C) can lead to hypervolemia and increase the risk of clotting. Resting immediately if chest pain develops (choice D) is important but does not directly address the prevention of thrombus formation in polycythemia vera.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days