A 25-year-old radio announcer comes to the clinic for an annual examination. His BMI is 26.0 kg/m2. He is concerned about his weight. Based on this information, what is appropriate counsel for the patient during the visit?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Give the patient information about reduction of fat, cholesterol, and calories because he is overweight. Rationale: 1. BMI of 26.0 kg/m2 indicates the patient is overweight, not underweight (anorexic) (Choice A) or obese (Choice D). 2. Patient's concern about weight indicates the need for guidance on healthy habits. 3. Providing information on reducing fat, cholesterol, and calories aligns with addressing weight concerns. Incorrect Choices: A: Refer the patient to a nutritionist because he is anorexic - Incorrect because the patient is overweight, not anorexic. B: Reassure the patient that he has a normal body weight - Incorrect as BMI of 26.0 kg/m2 indicates overweight, not normal weight. D: Give the patient information about reduction of fat and cholesterol because he is obese - Incorrect as the patient is overweight, not obese.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nontherapeutic. This statement is nontherapeutic because it dismisses the client's feelings and concerns by invalidating them with a superficial reassurance. It does not address the client's emotions or provide meaningful support. Other choices are not applicable as only the therapeutic vs. nontherapeutic aspect is being evaluated here.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Posterior interosseous nerve. Compression of this nerve can mimic lateral epicondylitis due to similar symptoms like wrist and finger extension weakness. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Anterior interosseous nerve compression presents with different symptoms, C: Median nerve compression typically causes different symptoms like carpal tunnel syndrome, and D: C8/T1 nerve roots are associated with different conditions like thoracic outlet syndrome.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because ultrasound, heat, and massage are NOT recommended treatments for myositis ossificans as they can potentially worsen the condition by promoting further inflammation and ossification. The ideal treatment involves rest, avoiding aggravating activities, and physical therapy focused on gentle range of motion exercises. Surgery may be considered in certain cases to remove the ossified tissue. Choices B, C, and D are all true statements regarding myositis ossificans, emphasizing the importance of preventing contractures, timing of surgery, and the definition of the condition.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The spinoglenoid notch of the scapula. Isolated infraspinatus weakness and atrophy is indicative of a lesion at the spinoglenoid notch, which is where the suprascapular nerve passes to innervate the infraspinatus muscle. The suprascapular notch (A) is more related to the supraspinatus muscle. C5 nerve root (B) involvement would typically present with a wider range of muscle weakness. The upper trunk of the brachial plexus (D) would lead to a more extensive pattern of muscle involvement.