A 25 year old patient is diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus infection. Which of the following drug would be most appropriate to prescribe in treating this patient’s illness?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Valacyclovir. Valacyclovir is an antiviral medication commonly used to treat herpes simplex virus infections. It is a prodrug of acyclovir, which inhibits viral replication by targeting the viral DNA polymerase enzyme. Valacyclovir is effective in reducing the severity and duration of genital herpes outbreaks. A: Zanamivir is an antiviral medication used to treat and prevent influenza virus infections, not herpes simplex virus infections. B: Lamivudine is an antiretroviral medication used to treat HIV and hepatitis B infections, not herpes simplex virus infections. D: Cidofovir is an antiviral medication used to treat cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections, not herpes simplex virus infections. In summary, Valacyclovir is the most appropriate choice for treating genital herpes simplex virus infection due to its effectiveness in inhibiting viral replication and reducing the severity of outbreaks.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptomycin. Streptomycin binds to the S12 ribosomal subunit, inhibiting protein synthesis in mycobacteria. It is effective against drug-resistant tuberculosis and is used as an injectable drug. Streptomycin is known to cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity as side effects. Choice B: Ethambutol inhibits cell wall synthesis in mycobacteria, not protein synthesis. Choice C: Isoniazid inhibits mycolic acid synthesis in the cell wall of mycobacteria. Choice D: Rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis by binding to the beta subunit of bacterial RNA polymerase.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Caspofungin is the correct answer as it inhibits the synthesis of β1,3 glucan in fungal cell walls, leading to cell lysis and death. 2. Amphotericin B acts by binding to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes, disrupting membrane integrity (fungistatic). 3. Flucytosine is converted to 5-fluorouracil inside fungal cells, inhibiting DNA synthesis (fungistatic). 4. Ketoconazole inhibits ergosterol synthesis, disrupting membrane function (fungistatic).

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: C: The diuretic furosemide causes potassium loss (hypokalemia), which can lead to increased toxicity of digoxin. Low potassium levels can enhance the effects of digoxin, resulting in digoxin toxicity. Summary: A: Hypocalcemia is not directly related to digoxin toxicity. B: Hyponatremia is not directly related to digoxin toxicity. D: This choice is incorrect as hypokalemia is a known risk factor for digoxin toxicity.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) is the correct answer for treating mild hypertension due to its effectiveness in reducing blood volume and lowering blood pressure. HCTZ works by promoting urine production, leading to decreased fluid retention and lower blood pressure. Furosemide (A) is a loop diuretic mainly used for edema and severe hypertension. Spironolactone (B) is a potassium-sparing diuretic often used for heart failure and hyperaldosteronism. Amiloride (D) is another potassium-sparing diuretic used in combination with other diuretics. Overall, HCTZ is preferred for mild hypertension due to its efficacy, safety, and low cost.