ATI RN
foundation of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 25-year-old patient diagnosed with invasive cervical cancer expresses a desire to have children. What procedure might the physician offer as treatment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Radical trachelectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the cervix while preserving the uterus. This procedure is often offered to young women diagnosed with early-stage cervical cancer who wish to preserve their fertility and have children in the future. By removing the cervix and part of the upper vagina, while leaving the uterus intact, radical trachelectomy offers these patients a chance at preserving their ability to conceive and carry a pregnancy to term. It is a fertility-sparing option in the management of cervical cancer, particularly in younger patients like the 25-year-old mentioned in the question.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is teaching a group of women about the potential benefits of breast self-examination (BSE). The nurse should teach the women that effective BSE is dependent on what factor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Effective breast self-examination (BSE) relies significantly on women's knowledge of their own breasts. Understanding how their breasts normally look and feel allows women to detect any changes such as lumps, dimpling, or discharge, which may be early signs of breast abnormalities like cancer. By being familiar with their breasts' normal appearance and texture, women can promptly seek medical attention if they notice any unusual changes. This self-awareness and familiarity with their breasts are crucial in enabling women to perform BSE effectively and to detect any potential issues early on.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient about the largeintestine in elimination. In which order will the nurse list the structures, starting with the first portion?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The order in which the structures of the large intestine are listed starting with the first portion is as follows: cecum (the pouch where the large intestine begins), ascending colon (runs vertically up the right side of the abdomen), transverse colon (crosses horizontally from the right side of the abdomen to the left), descending colon (descends vertically down the left side of the abdomen), sigmoid colon (the S-shaped curve that leads into the rectum), and rectum (the final portion where feces are stored before being eliminated from the body). Therefore, option A provides the correct order of structures in the large intestine during elimination.
Question 4 of 9
A patient is on a full liquid diet. Which food item choice by the patient will cause the nurse to intervene?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Mashed potatoes and gravy are not appropriate for a full liquid diet. A full liquid diet consists of foods that are liquid at room temperature or melt into liquid form at body temperature. Mashed potatoes and gravy are not in liquid form and therefore should not be consumed by a patient following a full liquid diet. The nurse should intervene and provide education about the correct food choices allowed on a full liquid diet, such as custard, frozen yogurt, and pureed vegetables.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient with an acoustic neuroma who has been recently admitted to an oncology unit. What symptoms is the nurse likely to find during the initial assessment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A nurse assessing a patient with an acoustic neuroma would likely find symptoms such as loss of hearing, tinnitus, and vertigo. Acoustic neuroma, also known as vestibular schwannoma, is a noncancerous tumor that develops on the vestibulocochlear nerve, which carries sound and balance signals from the inner ear to the brain. The most common symptoms of an acoustic neuroma include progressive hearing loss, ringing in the ears (tinnitus), and dizziness or imbalance (vertigo). Therefore, option A is the most appropriate choice for the symptoms that the nurse is likely to find in a patient with an acoustic neuroma.
Question 6 of 9
A 35-year-old man is seen in the clinic because he is experiencing recurring episodes of urinary frequency, dysuria, and fever. The nurse should recognize the possibility of what health problem?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The symptoms of urinary frequency, dysuria, and fever in a 35-year-old man are indicative of chronic bacterial prostatitis. Prostatitis is inflammation of the prostate gland, which can be caused by bacterial infection. Chronic bacterial prostatitis is characterized by recurrent episodes of infection leading to symptoms like urinary urgency, frequency, dysuria, and sometimes fever. It is important to identify and treat chronic bacterial prostatitis promptly to prevent complications and improve quality of life for the patient.
Question 7 of 9
A patient comes to the clinic complaining of a tender, inflamed vulva. Testing does not reveal the presence of any known causative microorganism. What aspect of this patients current health status may account for the patients symptoms of vulvitis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Morbid obesity is a risk factor for developing a condition known as intertrigo, which is inflammation of the skin folds. In this case, the skin folds of the vulva are affected, leading to vulvitis. The warm and moist environment between the skin folds in obese individuals can promote the growth of microorganisms and the development of inflammation. This can result in symptoms such as tenderness and redness in the vulva. Since testing did not reveal the presence of any known causative microorganism, the patient's morbid obesity may be the underlying factor contributing to the symptoms of vulvitis. Treating the intertrigo and addressing the underlying obesity may help alleviate the symptoms.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is part of the health care team at an oncology center. A patient has been diagnosed with leukemia and the prognosis is poor, but the patient is not yet aware of the prognosis. How can the bad news best be conveyed to the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When delivering bad news to a patient, it is important to create an environment that is supportive, compassionate, and conducive to effective communication. Having the patient at eye level when discussing difficult information helps to establish a sense of equality and respect between the healthcare provider and the patient. This can increase the patient's comfort level and help them feel more connected and engaged in the conversation. Additionally, eye level communication allows for better non-verbal cues to be exchanged, such as eye contact and facial expressions, which are important for conveying empathy and understanding during such sensitive discussions. It is crucial for the patient to be met at eye level, both physically and emotionally, when discussing a poor prognosis like the diagnosis of leukemia.
Question 9 of 9
A female patient with HIV has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What information is most appropriate for the nurse to tell this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate information for the nurse to tell the patient is option A, which states that this condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) test annually. Condylomata acuminata, or genital warts, is caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). Certain strains of HPV, specifically types 16 and 18, are considered high-risk strains that can lead to cervical cancer in women. Therefore, regular Pap tests are crucial for early detection of any cervical changes that could indicate pre-cancerous or cancerous lesions. It is important for the patient to be informed about this risk and the importance of regular screening to monitor her cervical health.