Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 25-year-old just had a colonoscopy and was diagnosed with Crohn disease. Which of the following is consistent with this diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Crohn's disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. Right lower quadrant cramping is consistent with Crohn's disease as it commonly involves the terminal ileum, which is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. Severe bloody diarrhea is more characteristic of ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease. Nausea and vomiting are not specific symptoms of Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract, not just the rectum, so it is not accurate to say it mostly affects the rectum.

Question 2 of 5

Women who have breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation are usually:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Women with breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation commonly have a triple-negative breast cancer subtype, which means they are negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2). This subtype tends to be more aggressive and harder to treat. Choice A is incorrect as they are typically negative for HER2. Choice B is incorrect because they are usually negative for estrogen receptor. Choice C is incorrect as they are usually negative for progesterone receptor and HER2.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following birthmarks usually fade or regress as the child gets older?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Hemangiomas, congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots), and macular stains. These three types of birthmarks are known to fade or regress as the child gets older. Hemangiomas are vascular birthmarks that often shrink and disappear over time. Congenital dermal melanocytosis, commonly known as Mongolian spots, usually fade by adolescence. Macular stains, also called salmon patches, tend to lighten and fade as a child grows. The other choices are incorrect because they do not typically fade or regress with age.

Question 4 of 5

What is the primary cause of primary hypercholesteremia?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor mutation with defects in breakdown.' Primary hypercholesteremia is mainly caused by mutations in the LDL receptor, leading to impaired clearance of LDL cholesterol from the blood. This results in high levels of LDL cholesterol in the bloodstream. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary cause of primary hypercholesteremia.

Question 5 of 5

Anemia of chronic inflammation is generally classified as:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Anemia of chronic inflammation is typically characterized by normochromic (normal hemoglobin content) and normocytic (normal cell size) red blood cells. Choice A, hypochromic and microcytic, is incorrect because hypochromic refers to reduced hemoglobin content and microcytic refers to smaller than normal red blood cells, which are not typically seen in anemia of chronic inflammation. Choice B, hypochromic and macrocytic, is also incorrect as macrocytic refers to larger than normal red blood cells. Choice C, normochromic and microcytic, is incorrect because microcytic red blood cells are smaller than normal. Therefore, the correct classification for anemia of chronic inflammation is normochromic and normocytic.

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