ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 25-year-old female patient with brain metastases is considering her life expectancy after her most recent meeting with her oncologist. Based on the fact that the patient is not receiving treatment for her brain metastases, what is the nurses most appropriate action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ensuring that the patient receives adequate palliative care. Palliative care focuses on improving the quality of life for patients with serious illnesses, including managing symptoms and providing emotional support. In this case, since the patient is not receiving treatment for her brain metastases, palliative care would be most appropriate to help alleviate any pain or discomfort she may be experiencing and provide holistic support for her and her family. A: Promoting the patient's functional status and ADLs may not be the priority if the patient's prognosis is terminal and she is not receiving treatment for her brain metastases. C: Ensuring that the family does not tell the patient her condition is terminal goes against ethical principles of honesty and transparency in healthcare. D: Promoting adherence to the prescribed medication regimen may not be relevant if the patient is not receiving active treatment for her brain metastases.
Question 2 of 9
A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nausea and vomiting. Chemotherapy commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea and vomiting, due to its impact on rapidly dividing cells in the digestive tract. This adverse effect can significantly impact a patient's quality of life and adherence to treatment. Pruritis (A), itching, is less common and usually not a primary side effect of chemotherapy. Altered glucose metabolism (C) is a potential effect of some chemotherapeutic agents but is not the most common adverse effect. Confusion (D) is not typically associated with chemotherapy and is more commonly seen with other medications or medical conditions.
Question 3 of 9
An older adult with a recent history of mixed hearing loss has been diagnosed with a cholesteatoma. What should this patient be taught about this diagnosis? Select all that apply
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cholesteatomas are often the result of chronic otitis media. Chronic otitis media can lead to the formation of cholesteatomas, which are noncancerous but can cause complications if left untreated. Cholesteatomas do not resolve spontaneously (A), are not the result of metastasis (B), do not typically cause intractable neuropathic pain (D), and usually require surgical removal to prevent complications (E). Therefore, educating the patient about the association between chronic otitis media and cholesteatoma is essential for understanding the diagnosis and potential treatment options.
Question 4 of 9
A patient has presented with signs and symptoms that are consistent with contact dermatitis. What aspect of care should the nurse prioritize when working with this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Identifying the offending agent, if possible. This is prioritized in contact dermatitis to prevent further exposure and recurrence. By identifying the specific irritant or allergen, the nurse can guide the patient in avoiding it, leading to effective management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while promoting adequate perfusion, safe use of topical antihistamines, and teaching the use of an EpiPen may be relevant in certain situations, they do not directly address the root cause of contact dermatitis, which is exposure to the offending agent.
Question 5 of 9
A patient comes to the ophthalmology clinic for an eye examination. The patient tells the nurse that he often sees floaters in his vision. How should the nurse best interpret this subjective assessment finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because floaters are commonly caused by age-related changes in the vitreous humor of the eye, such as the formation of tiny fibers or clumps. These floaters are typically harmless and not a cause for concern. Choice B is incorrect because glasses do not affect floaters in the eye. Choice C is incorrect because floaters are not a primary symptom of glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because weakened ciliary muscles are not typically associated with floaters. Therefore, the most appropriate interpretation is that seeing floaters is a normal aging process of the eye.
Question 6 of 9
A 56-year-old patient has come to the clinic for his routine eye examination and is told he needs bifocals. The patient asks the nurse what change in his eyes has caused his need for bifocals. How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it accurately explains the physiological change in the eye that leads to the need for bifocals. As individuals age, there is a gradual thickening of the lens of the eye, which affects the eye's ability to accommodate for near vision. This thickening makes it harder for the eye to focus on close objects, necessitating the use of bifocals to correct this near vision issue. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide a scientifically accurate explanation for the need for bifocals in older individuals. Option A is dismissive and does not address the specific change in the eye that leads to the need for bifocals. Option B implies aging as a general concept without specifying the relevant change in the eye. Option D incorrectly states that the eye gets shorter as we age, which is not the reason for needing bifocals.
Question 7 of 9
A 31-year-old patient has returned to the post-surgical unit following a hysterectomy. The patients care plan addresses the risk of hemorrhage. How should the nurse best monitor the patients postoperative blood loss?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Count and inspect each perineal pad that the patient uses. This method directly measures postoperative blood loss and allows for accurate monitoring. It provides quantitative data to assess the severity of hemorrhage. A: Having the patient void and have bowel movements using a commode rather than toilet does not directly measure blood loss and may not provide accurate monitoring. C: Swabbing the patient's perineum for the presence of blood is not as accurate as directly counting and inspecting perineal pads. D: Leaving the patient's perineum open to air does not provide a method for quantifying blood loss and may not be as reliable as inspecting perineal pads.
Question 8 of 9
A high-risk labor patient progresses from preeclampsia to eclampsia. Aggressive management is instituted, and the fetus is delivered via cesarean birth. Which finding in the immediate postoperative period indicates that the patient is at risk of developing HELLP syndrome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count of 50,000/mcL. HELLP syndrome is a severe form of preeclampsia characterized by Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelet count. In this scenario, a platelet count of 50,000/mcL indicates thrombocytopenia, which is a key component of HELLP syndrome. Low platelet count can lead to bleeding complications and is a critical indicator of the syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B: Liver enzyme levels within normal range do not necessarily indicate the presence of HELLP syndrome, as elevated liver enzymes are a hallmark feature of the syndrome. C: Being negative for edema is not a reliable indicator of HELLP syndrome, as edema is a common finding in preeclampsia but not specific to HELLP syndrome. D: No evidence of nausea or vomiting is not a specific sign of HELLP syndrome, as these
Question 9 of 9
A patient in her 30s has two young children and has just had a modified radical mastectomy with immediate reconstruction. The patient shares with the nurse that she is somewhat worried about her future, but she appears to be adjusting well to her diagnosis and surgery. What nursing intervention is most appropriate to support this patients coping?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, which is to arrange a referral to a community-based support program. This option is the most appropriate because it offers the patient ongoing support from individuals who understand what she is going through. Community-based support programs can provide a safe space for the patient to share her feelings, connect with others in similar situations, and access additional resources for coping. This intervention focuses on providing the patient with adequate support beyond the immediate recovery period, which is crucial for long-term coping and adjustment. Option A is incorrect as it may not consider the patient's individual needs for support beyond her spouse or partner. Option B may be premature as the patient might need time to process her diagnosis and surgery before moving on to the next phase of treatment. Option C may put undue pressure on the patient to maintain a specific emotional state for the sake of others, which may not be beneficial for her own coping and healing process.