ATI RN
Quizlet ATI Pharmacology Final Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 24-year-old woman medical student with a history of depression presents to the emergency department with tachycardia and shallow breathing. After her initial presentation, she begins to become confused and has a seizure. An ECG is performed and shows QT prolongation. An arterial blood gas shows metabolic acidosis. She has been taking antidepressants for a couple of years, but her depression is worsening. She had a test yesterday and told her mother that she felt she did poorly. There is concern that she has overdosed on her medication. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 5
A patient was prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) for the treatment of depression and anxiety. The patient's spouse calls the clinic and reports the patient is increasingly moody and seems 'disconnected with life.' What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sertraline, an SSRI, carries a black box warning for increased suicidal risk, particularly early in treatment, as it can paradoxically worsen mood or detachment in some patients. The spouse's report of moodiness and disconnection suggests possible suicidal ideation or adverse effects, necessitating urgent in-person assessment to evaluate safety and adjust treatment. Giving diphenhydramine is inappropriate, as it addresses neither depression nor the drug's effects and could mask symptoms. Holding medication without assessment risks untreated depression or withdrawal effects. Doubling the dose could exacerbate the issue, increasing risk. The nurse's priority is patient safety, requiring immediate evaluation by a professional, making choice B the most responsible and evidence-based response.
Question 3 of 5
The physician has prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) for the patient who is anxious and depressed. The patient calls the nurse to report that he has experienced delayed ejaculation since being on this medication. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sertraline, an SSRI, often causes sexual dysfunction like delayed ejaculation due to serotonin elevation. Reporting this to the doctor allows dose adjustment or switching (e.g., to bupropion), addressing quality of life. Choice B minimizes the issue, risking noncompliance. Choice C assumes suicide risk without basis. Choice D falsely promises resolution. A advocates for the patient, ensuring tailored care, making it the best response.
Question 4 of 5
A client is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizures. Which statement by the client indicates effective teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin risks gingival hyperplasia, making oral hygiene vital'brushing and flossing prevent this, showing teaching success. Alcohol increases seizure risk and drug levels. Milk reduces absorption via calcium binding. Stopping after a month risks recurrence, as seizures require long-term control. Regular dental care mitigates a common, chronic side effect, aligning with phenytoin's long-term use and metabolism (CYP450 saturation). This statement reflects understanding of self-care, critical for adherence and complication prevention, making B the indicator of effective education.
Question 5 of 5
The following drugs must be avoided in severe renal failure (GFR ≤10 mL/min):
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.