A 24-year-old travel agent comes to your clinic, complaining of pain and swelling in her vulvar area. She states that 2 days earlier she could feel a small tender spot on the left side of her vagina but now it is larger and extremely tender. Her last period was 1 year ago, and she is sexually active. She uses the Depo-Provera shot for contraception. She denies any nausea, vomiting, constipation, diarrhea, pain with urination, or fever. Her past medical history is significant for ankle surgery. Her mother is healthy, and her father has type 2 diabetes. On examination she appears her stated age and is standing up. She states she cannot sit down without excruciating pain. Her blood pressure, temperature, and pulse are unremarkable. On visualization of her perineum, a large, red, tense swelling is seen to the left of her introitus. Palpation of the mass causes a great deal of pain. What disorder of the vulva is most likely causing her problems?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation described is consistent with a Bartholin's gland infection, also known as Bartholin's abscess. The Bartholin's glands are located on each side of the vaginal opening and can become blocked, leading to glandular secretions accumulating and forming an abscess. Symptoms of Bartholin's gland infection include pain, swelling, and tenderness in the vulvar area. The pain can be severe and exacerbated by sitting, similar to what the patient is experiencing. On examination, a red, tense swelling to the side of the introitus is a characteristic finding.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: It is important to adjust your approach based on the clinical context and your suspicion for a certain condition. If you have never found a positive result with a particular maneuver and you are usually pressed for time during examinations, it may be more beneficial to reserve that maneuver for situations where you have a higher suspicion for a correlating condition. This allows you to use your time and resources more effectively, targeting specific tests based on the clinical scenario to increase the chances of identifying any relevant issues. By using the test selectively, you can improve the diagnostic yield without compromising the overall assessment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation described is consistent with a Bartholin's gland infection, also known as Bartholin's abscess. The Bartholin's glands are located on each side of the vaginal opening and can become blocked, leading to glandular secretions accumulating and forming an abscess. Symptoms of Bartholin's gland infection include pain, swelling, and tenderness in the vulvar area. The pain can be severe and exacerbated by sitting, similar to what the patient is experiencing. On examination, a red, tense swelling to the side of the introitus is a characteristic finding.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The description provided, which includes a clearly demarcated, round patch of hair loss without visible scaling or inflammation and absence of hair shafts, is characteristic of alopecia areata. Alopecia areata is an autoimmune condition that causes hair loss in round or oval patches on the scalp or other parts of the body. It is not associated with pulling or twisting of hair (trichotillomania), fungal infection (tinea capitis), or hair loss due to constant pulling force (traction alopecia). In alopecia areata, the affected area usually appears smooth and without visible signs of irritation. Treatment options for alopecia areata may include corticosteroid injections, topical immunotherapy, or minoxidil.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The scenario described suggests that Ray experiences pain only when actively lifting his arm over his head, which indicates the issue is likely originating from structures outside of the joint itself. When the shoulder is moved passively (moved by an external force), there is full range of motion without pain, suggesting that the limitation and pain occur due to muscles, tendons, or ligaments surrounding the joint rather than within the joint itself. In this case, the joint disease is likely to be extra-articular, involving structures such as muscles or tendons rather than being articular in nature.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Intermittent claudication is a common symptom of peripheral vascular disease. It is characterized by muscle pain or cramping in the legs, usually in the calves, thighs, or buttocks, that occurs during physical activity such as walking and is relieved by rest. This symptom is due to inadequate blood flow to the muscles during exercise. It is important to assess for intermittent claudication in patients with risk factors such as smoking, diabetes, and hypertension, as it may indicate underlying peripheral arterial disease. The other symptoms listed (chest pressure with exertion, shortness of breath, knee pain) are not typically associated with peripheral vascular disease.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The description provided fits the criteria for tension-type headache. Tension-type headaches are typically described as a mild to moderate, dull, band-like pressure or tightness around the head. They can last from minutes to days and are often triggered by stress, anxiety, poor posture, or prolonged computer use. The absence of symptoms like photophobia and nausea, along with the response to over-the-counter medication, further support the diagnosis of tension-type headache in this case. Other headache types such as migraines or cluster headaches usually present with additional symptoms like nausea, photophobia, or tearing of the eye, which are not mentioned in this scenario. Analgesic rebound headaches typically occur in individuals who overuse pain medications, leading to worsening headaches when the medication wears off, but this patient's history does not suggest such misuse.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is commonly associated with issues related to the heart and cardiovascular system. Conditions such as heart failure, coronary artery disease, or arrhythmias can lead to symptoms like shortness of breath. Therefore, the symptom of shortness of breath would be assigned to the cardiac anatomic region.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Placing the patient in the left lateral decubitus position and auscultating with the bell is important to detect subtle sounds like the mitral stenosis murmur, opening snap of the mitral valve, and S3 and S4 gallops. The left lateral decubitus position helps bring the heart closer to the chest wall, allowing for better transmission of these sounds that may be missed in the supine position.